CCMC CCM Exam Questions

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1.

Which of the following is assessed by the MMPI?

  • Personality

  • Hallucinations

  • Delusions

  • Anxiety

Correct answer: Personality

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is a long, specially administered exam that must be used only by professionals trained to do so. It measures personality and psychopathology.

Though there are items in the assessment that deal with the possibility of hallucinations, delusions, and anxiety, the test as a whole is meant to measure the broader personality.

2.

Which of the following is true regarding fee-for-service?

  • Every aspect of the care provided is billed separately

  • One fee covers all services related to a condition

  • Fee-for-service tends to result in lower costs

  • One fee covers all services in a given episode of care

Correct answer: Every aspect of the care provided is billed separately

In a fee-for-service reimbursement model, each individual aspect of the care provided is billed separately. For example, a patient undergoing treatment for a broken bone would be billed for the physician, the supplies, the room, and so on.

Fee-for-service models do not cover all services related to a condition or all services in a given episode of care. They generally do not result in lower costs.

3.

Which of the following equations is correct with respect to cost savings?

  • Potential Costs - (Actual Cost / Cost of Case Management)

  • Potential Costs + (Actual Cost / Cost of Case Management)

  • Real Costs - (Actual Cost / Cost of Case Management)

  • Real Costs + (Actual Cost / Cost of Case Management)

Correct answer: Potential Costs - (Actual Cost / Cost of Case Management)

The cost savings associated with the involvement of case management in a particular case can be expressed as Potential Costs - (Actual Cost / Cost of Case Management).

This savings would be part of a cost-benefit report.

4.

Which of the following would be the best example of Comparative Effectiveness Research (CER)?

  • Weighing benefits and harms of a treatment

  • Auditing the cost of a treatment

  • Evaluating a clinician's credentials

  • Authoring new standards for treatment

Correct answer: Weighing benefits and harms of a treatment

Comparative Effectiveness Research (CER) refers to information-gathering and research that seeks to maximize the clinical benefit to a patient of a given treatment through comparative data; for example, weighing the benefits and harms of a given treatment.

The term does not refer to cost, credentials, or standards as much as it does to efficiency and clinical value of alternative treatments.

5.

About how many Medicare beneficiaries have limited English proficiency?

  • 8 percent 

  • 10 percent 

  • 20 percent 

  • 30 percent 

Correct answer: 8 percent 

About 8 percent of Medicare beneficiaries have limited English proficiency, highlighting the complexity of effective health communication in case management. 

6.

Can a healthcare provider waive the right to confidentiality?

  • No, under no circumstances

  • Yes, in some circumstances

  • Yes, as a general principle

  • Yes, if information is deemed relevant by a physician 

Correct answer: No, under no circumstances 

The right to confidentiality and privacy rests with the patient, and is not the healthcare provider's to waive. In all circumstances, the principle of minimum necessary information applies. Though there are circumstances in which patient confidentiality can be broken, these are highly specific and do not involve the healthcare provider waiving a right that they do not have; rather, they involve a necessary response to circumstances that supersede the client's rights (such as imminent self-harm).

This right cannot be waived due to physician involvement.

7.

How is the DSM-5 organized?

  • By developmental sequence

  • By severity of disorder

  • By acuity of disorder

  • By disorder alphabetically

Correct answer: By developmental sequence

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, is the standard technical diagnostic manual regarding mental disorders. It is organized according to developmental sequence, with developmental disorders earlier in the manual than other items such as depression, personality disorders, and substance abuse. 

The DSM-5 is not organized according to the severity of disorders, acuity of disorders, or alphabetically by disorder.

8.

Which of the following best characterizes the level of confidentiality to be followed in healthcare?

  • The strictest standard in place

  • Federal law

  • State law

  • Organizational standard

Correct answer: The strictest standard in place

As a principle, confidentiality in healthcare should be ensured by following the strictest standard in place, whether that is federal law, state law, organizational standard or, as is most usual, a combination of these and other standards. The working principle is to default to a protection of patient privacy in all cases.

9.

What is the Functional Capacity Evaluation?

  • An evaluation of the ability to perform work related tasks

  • An evaluation of the ability to perform activities of daily living

  • An evaluation of the ability to perform social functions normally

  • An evaluation of the ability to cope with everyday stress

Correct answer: An evaluation of the ability to perform work related tasks

The Functional Capacity Evaluation (FCE) is a measure of the ability to perform work related tasks. It is conducted when there is a need to gauge the ability to return to work, for a new job, or as part of an initial assessment. 

It does not measure activities of daily living, the ability to perform social functions normally, or the ability to cope with everyday stress.

10.

Which of the following would be the least likely example of an assistive technology?

  • Digital talking books

  • Wheelchairs

  • Architectural modifications

  • Hearing aids

Correct answer: Digital talking books

Assistive technologies are those which attempt to enhance the patient's ability to perform activities and tasks they were able to do previously. Examples would include wheelchairs, architectural modifications to living space, and hearing aids.

A digital talking book would be more likely to fall under the umbrella of adaptive technology, which are generally electronic or information technology tools that enhance functionality or independence.

11.

Why are the results of the CAHPS hospital survey public information?

  • To drive quality and public accountability

  • To ensure fair reimbursement 

  • To raise awareness of CMS standards 

  • To reward high-achieving organizations

Correct answer: To drive quality and public accountability

The CAHPS (or HCAHPS, standing for Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems) Hospital Survey, a nationally standardized survey of patient perspectives about their healthcare experience, allows for an objective comparison of hospitals based on topics that are important to consumers. The results are public information, which helps drive quality and public accountability for organizations.

The CAHPS Hospital Survey is not primarily designed to ensure fair reimbursement, to raise awareness of CMS standards, or to reward high-achieving organizations.

12.

Which of the following would be the least likely type of patient to be found in a Long-Term Acute Care Hospital?

  • A patient with diabetes and heart failure

  • A patient receiving multiple intravenous medications

  • A patient receiving total parenteral nutrition

  • Ventilator-dependent patients

Correct answer: A patient with diabetes and heart failure

Long-Term Acute Care Hospitals are meant for patients who have acute needs that will need management in a hospital setting for an indefinite period; at least as long as the treatment or condition lasts that requires such a stay. Examples would include patients receiving multiple intravenous medications, patients receiving total parenteral nutrition, or ventilator-dependent patients.

A patient with diabetes has one long-term, potentially stable, manageable condition and one acute condition. The acute condition will be treated in acute care in the short term. The long-term condition can be managed outside any health care setting by the patient.

13.

About how long should change be underway before the maintenance stage of change is achieved? 

  • Six months

  • One year

  • Three months 

  • One month 

Correct answer: Six months

Though the experience of clients differs, in general, one can say that maintenance of change has been achieved when change has been sustained for about six months. 

14.

How is SSDI funded?

  • Through the Social Security Trust Fund

  • Through the U.S. Treasury General Fund

  • Through a public-private partnership

  • Through nonprofit organizations

Correct answer: Through the Social Security Trust Fund

Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) is funded through the Social Security Trust Fund.

It is not funded through the U.S. Treasury General Fund, any public-private partnership, or nonprofit organizations.

15.

According to the American Cancer Society, when should women start having yearly mammograms? 

  • Age 40

  • Age 30

  • Age 60

  • Age 50

Correct answer: Age 40

According to the American Cancer Society, women should start having yearly mammograms at age 40.

16.

Which of the following is true regarding a "protocol" in terms of treatment and practice guidelines?

  • It outlines the circumstances of care

  • It defines a care procedure

  • It defines a testing procedure

  • It outlines how care is given

Correct answer: It outlines the circumstances of care

A protocol in terms of treatment and practice guidelines describes the general circumstances of care around a given area of practice. The who, why, where and when of the practice is outlined, but not how care is to be provided.

Such a protocol does not define a care or testing procedure, and does not detail how care is to be provided.

17.

Which part of a case management assessment deals with how a patient understands their need and plan for treatment?

  • Cognitive status

  • Health behavior

  • Physical functioning

  • Functional status

Correct answer: Cognitive status

Assessing the cognitive status of a patient is a key part of case management; it can be described as the degree to which a patient understands their need and plan for treatment. A person with a compromised cognitive status, such as exists in many neurocognitive disorders, may not understand their need and plan for treatment and will require a different plan of care.

Health behavior assesses high-risk behaviors such as smoking. Physical functioning assesses the overall physical health of the patient. Functional status assessment deals with how the patient goes about dealing with the functional demands of daily life, such as the activities of daily living.

18.

What does CPOE refer to?

  • Computerized provider order entry

  • Condition parity operator entry

  • Condition parity order entry

  • Computerized provider operator entry

Correct answer: Computerized provider order entry

CPOE (Computerized provider order entry) is a term used to refer to using a computerized record system rather than any other method to record and transmit physicians' orders. The intention is to increase safety, security and efficiency.

19.

Which is covered under the ADA, the disability or the person?

  • The person

  • The disability

  • Both

  • Technically, neither

Correct answer: The person

According to the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, it is the person and not the condition or disability that is covered by the law. In other words, a person's case by case circumstances are evaluated to determine if their disability applies for coverage in that scenario. 

20.

Are nurses obligated by law to report unintentional neglect?

  • Yes

  • Not unless the neglect is life-threatening

  • It is a matter of nurse's clinical judgment

  • No

Correct answer: Yes

All cases of neglect, intentional or unintentional, must be reported to Adult Protective Services. Nurses, as well as many other health professionals, are mandated reporters who are obligated by law to take action when abuse or neglect is suspected.