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NASM-CPT Exam Questions
Page 1 of 50
1.
Which of the following is an example of Fartlek training?
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Sprinting between mailboxes until seeing a stop sign, then walking for 3 more mailboxes before jogging for 2 miles
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Jumping rope for 30 seconds and resting for 30 seconds, for 10 rounds
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Cycling as hard as possible for 20 seconds,resting for 10 seconds, and repeating 8 times per session
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Performing resistance training for the entire body for 30 minutes
Correct answer: Sprinting between mailboxes until seeing a stop sign, then walking for 3 more mailboxes before jogging for 2 miles
Fartlek training is a form of training in which one performs free exercise, with few restrictions. This is a good way to mix up training methods and make them more fun for clients.
Jumping rope for 30 seconds and resting for 30 seconds, for 10 rounds, is an example of interval training.
Cycling as hard as possible for 20 seconds, resting for 10 seconds, and repeating 8 times per session is an example of Tabata training.
Performing resistance training for the entire body for 30 minutes is a standard method of resistance training.
2.
What is the purpose of corrective flexibility?
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It improves muscle imbalance, range of motion, and altered joint motion
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It improves soft tissue extensibility and increases neuromuscular efficiency
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It functions in all three planes of motion and improves integrated soft tissue extensibility
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It increases neuromuscular control and primarily utilizes reciprocal inhibition
Correct answer: It improves muscle imbalance, range of motion, and altered joint motion
Corrective exercise includes self-myofascial release and static stretching and should be utilized during Phase 1 training. Autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition are the processes that are enacted in corrective flexibility.
3.
Which of the following is one of the most frequent errors in utilizing the Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) scale?
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Concentrating solely on one specific area of the body
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Not properly taking their heart rate
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Not knowing the number scale and the exercise intensity equivalents
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Ignoring external factors such as humidity and altitude
Correct answer: Concentrating solely on one specific area of the body
A frequent error in utilizing the Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) scale is concentrating solely on one specific area of the body. The RPE scale is designed to gauge the overall exertion and fatigue experienced during physical activity, reflecting the total physiological and psychological stress imposed by the exercise. When individuals focus only on one area of the body, such as the legs during a run or the arms during weightlifting, they may not accurately assess their overall exertion. This narrow focus can lead to a misleading perception of total effort, which may affect workout intensity adjustments and overall training effectiveness.
Not properly taking their heart rate is incorrect because the RPE scale is specifically designed to be subjective and does not necessarily require measuring heart rate. The RPE scale assesses perceived exertion based on physical sensations such as breathlessness and muscle fatigue rather than objective metrics like heart rate. Therefore, not taking heart rate measurements is not a mistake in using the RPE scale; rather, it is part of the scale's intended use.
While not understanding the scale and its intensity equivalents can be a limitation in using the RPE scale effectively, it does not directly pertain to the common misuse of focusing on a single body area. This answer addresses a lack of knowledge or misunderstanding of the scale itself, which is a different type of error related to education and familiarity with the scale rather than its application during exercise.
Ignoring external factors like humidity and altitude can affect the accuracy of perceived exertion ratings, as these conditions can increase the physiological strain and thus the perception of effort. However, this answer does not specifically address the common mistake of focusing on one area of the body. Instead, it highlights a broader environmental consideration that could influence the overall accuracy of the RPE, which, while important, is separate from the error of localized focus during its application.
The key issue with concentrating only on one area of the body when using the RPE scale is that it does not provide a comprehensive view of overall exertion, which is critical for effectively monitoring and adjusting the intensity of workouts based on total body response. Other mentioned errors, though potentially impactful, address different aspects of using the RPE scale effectively.
4.
Which of the following are the two hormones responsible for the "fight-or-flight" response?
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Epinephrine and norepinephrine
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Testosterone and estrogen
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Growth hormone and testosterone
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Epinephrine and testosterone
Correct answer: Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are hormones categorized as catecholamines, which are produced by the adrenal glands. These hormones are part of the stress response referred to as the "fight or flight" response.
During any activity, exercise, or stress, the adrenal glands secrete more epinephrine, which increases heart rate, elevates blood sugar, sends blood to working muscles, and dilates airways.
5.
In many cases, how long does it take for an employer to decide whether they will consider someone based on their resume?
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Less than 30 seconds
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By the end of the business day
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A few hours
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A few days
Correct answer: Less than 30 seconds
Quality resumes are important for fitness professionals who wish to gain employment. A well-structured resume avoids being considered for elimination through its professional appearance and adequate content. It can take only 30 seconds for an employer to decide whether to accept or reject the applicant based on the resume.
6.
Given that a new client in her 40s has no history of consistent exercise, which type of set training would be most beneficial for her initial regimen?
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Single-set training
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Pyramid-set training
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Superset training
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Multiple set training
Correct answer: Single-set training
For a new client in her 40s who has no history of consistent exercise, single-set training is most beneficial as an initial regimen. This approach involves performing one set of each exercise, which helps the client focus on learning proper form and technique without the fatigue associated with more intense or voluminous training. Single-set training is also less intimidating and more manageable, reducing the risk of injury and excessive soreness, which are important considerations for beginners, particularly those who may not have developed exercise tolerance or muscular endurance.
Pyramid-set training involves progressively increasing or decreasing the weight and changing the number of repetitions with each set. This type of training can be quite demanding because it requires performing several sets of each exercise with varying weights and reps, which can lead to quick fatigue. For a beginner, especially someone in their 40s just starting to exercise, pyramid training may be too complex and physically challenging, potentially increasing the risk of injury due to fatigue or improper form.
Superset training involves performing two exercises back-to-back with no rest in between, usually targeting either the same muscle group (to increase intensity) or opposing muscle groups (to save time and maintain intensity). This type of training is quite demanding and can be very strenuous for beginners who are not yet accustomed to exercise stress. The lack of rest between sets in superset training could lead to excessive fatigue, poor exercise execution, and a higher risk of injury for a novice exerciser.
Multiple set training involves performing several sets of the same exercise before moving on to another exercise. While this approach is effective for building strength and endurance, it may be overwhelming for beginners due to the physical demand and endurance required. Multiple sets can lead to increased muscle soreness and fatigue, which might discourage a new exerciser or increase the likelihood of dropout due to a perceived high level of difficulty.
For a beginner, particularly someone older and new to regular physical activity, starting with single-set training is a prudent choice. It allows for a focus on learning proper technique and gradually building up fitness levels without overwhelming the body. More advanced training methods like pyramid sets, supersets, or multiple sets should ideally be introduced gradually as the individual's fitness, confidence, and tolerance to exercise stress improve.
7.
Which is the best definition of a “repetition”?
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A complete movement of a single exercise
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Completion of a phase of exercise
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A single movement in any direction
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The second complete movement of an exercise
Correct answer: A complete movement of a single exercise
Repetition refers to the number of times an exercise is completed, for example, performing 15 repetitions of a biceps curl involves curling the weight upward for a total of 15 times.
Repetitions are inversely related to the load lifted. For example, the heavier the load, the lower number of repetitions can be achieved. Repetitions can be categorized as low (1 to 5), moderate (6 to 12), or high (12+).
8.
Which of the following would serve as an active stretch for the hip adductors?
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While standing, stepping one leg out to the side and lunging toward it, then repeating on the other side
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While supine, pulling the knee to the chest and alternating between knee flexion and extension
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While sitting, placing the soles of the feet against one another, pushing down on the thighs, and holding for 30 seconds
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While prone, flexing and extending the knee in an alternating pattern
Correct answer: While standing, stepping one leg out to the side and lunging toward it, then repeating on the other side
Active stretches use antagonist and synergist muscles to stretch the target muscle group. For instance, stepping to the side to stretch the adductors activates the abductors and synergists in the area to stretch these muscles.
While supine, pulling the knee to the chest and alternating between knee flexion and extension is an active stretch for the hamstrings.
While sitting, placing the soles of the feet against one another, pushing down on the thighs, and holding for 30 seconds is a passive stretch for the abductors.
While prone, flexing and extending the knee in an alternating pattern will create an active stretch for the hip flexors and quads.
9.
In the context of a bicep curl exercise, which of the following accurately defines a repetition (rep)?
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Completing one full cycle of flexing and then extending the elbow
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Performing 10 bicep curls, then resting
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Completing ten continuous cycles of flexing and extending the elbow
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Holding the elbow in a flexed position
Correct answer: Completing one full cycle of flexing and then extending the elbow
In a bicep curl exercise, a repetition, commonly referred to as a rep, is defined as completing one full cycle of movement which involves both the flexing and subsequent extending of the elbow. This full cycle ensures that the muscle undergoes both contraction and elongation under resistance, which is essential for effectively stimulating muscle growth and strength development. The rep begins when the elbow starts to flex (bringing the weight toward the shoulder) and is completed when the arm returns to the starting position with the elbow fully extended.
Performing 10 bicep curls, then resting describes a set, not a single repetition. A set consists of multiple repetitions performed consecutively, in this case, ten reps, followed by a period of rest. It's important to differentiate between a rep and a set, as they are fundamental units of exercise prescription, where a rep is a single cycle of exercise and a set is a series of such repetitions.
Completing ten continuous cycles of flexing and extending the elbow is similar to the first incorrect answer. This describes completing ten repetitions, not defining what one repetition entails. While it accurately describes the action within each repetition, it does not correctly define what constitutes a single repetition within the context of the question.
Holding the elbow in a flexed position describes an isometric hold rather than a dynamic repetition. In an isometric exercise, the joint angle and muscle length do not change during the contraction. This is different from a dynamic exercise like the bicep curl, where movement (flexing and extending) is essential to complete a repetition.
Understanding the precise definition of a repetition is crucial for accurately following exercise protocols and achieving desired fitness outcomes. Incorrect interpretations can lead to ineffective training practices or misunderstandings about exercise execution, potentially affecting both safety and effectiveness.
10.
What should be included in a personal trainer's resume?
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Recent work experience and/or education
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Trusted family members as references
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Non-fitness-related skills learned in previous jobs
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Education and experience in chronological order
Correct answer: Recent work experience and/or education
A resume should include the most recent/relevant education and/or work experience at the beginning to make the resume more attractive to potential employers. Family members should not be references, and non-fitness-related skills can be left off the resume.
A fitness professional's resume should be the following:
- Creative: Provide an accurate employment history in a creative way.
- Organized: All of the information should be well-structured.
- Unconventional: Feature experience related to fitness outside of the gym.
- Vulnerable: Be honest and show the ability to learn and grow.
11.
Which muscles may be underactive if the low back arches during an overhead squat assessment?
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Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers
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Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae
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Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, vastus medialis oblique
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Medial gastrocnemius, gracilis, sartorius
Correct answer: Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers
These muscles, when underactive, are the probable culprits when the low back arches. Overactive muscles include the hip flexor complex, erector spinae, and latissimus dorsi. The anterior tibialis and erector spinae are typically underactive with excessive forward lean. The gluteus medius and vastus medialis oblique are typically underactive when the knees move inward, and the medial gastrocnemius, gracilis, and sartorius are typically underactive when the feet turn out.
12.
What is another term for the medial collateral ligament?
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Tibial collateral ligament
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Fibular collateral ligament
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Anterior cruciate ligament
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Posterior cruciate ligament
Correct answer: Tibial collateral ligament
The medial collateral ligament is found on the inside of the knee and connects the tibia to the femur. The lateral collateral ligament is found on the other side of the knee, connecting the femur to the fibula.
The anterior cruciate ligament is found anterior to the posterior cruciate ligament, both of which resist rotational forces through the knee.
13.
What assessments are appropriate for a client with hypertension?
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Assessments using the talk test
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Assessments using predicted maximal heart rate
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Assessments using estimated heart rate max (HRmax)
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Assessments involving a Valsalva maneuver
Correct answer: Assessments using the talk test
The talk test is the ideal way to assess whether a client has an elevated heart rate that is just high enough to be beneficial for endurance training.
Clients with hypertension may take drugs that alter blood pressure measurements, which makes any HRmax calculation unreliable.
A Valsalva maneuver is never recommended for a client with hypertension, as it may spike blood pressure and cause dizziness.
14.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the ventilatory threshold?
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It is the point during exercise where the body equally uses carbohydrates and fats for energy
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It is the point at which oxygen uptake decreases as ventilation increases
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It occurs when lactic acid production ceases entirely during exercise
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It occurs when the blood pressure reaches its peak level during physical activity
Correct answer: It is the point during exercise where the body equally uses carbohydrates and fats for energy
The Ventilatory Threshold (VT) is a critical concept in exercise physiology that describes a specific point during exercise at which the body's metabolism shifts significantly. This threshold is often associated with an increase in the rate of ventilation (breathing) and is an indicator of changing metabolic processes during physical exertion.
The correct answer, it is the point during exercise where the body equally uses carbohydrates and fats for energy, is a description of the ventilatory threshold that indicates the metabolic balance point where the body's energy supply shifts from using mostly one type of fuel to a more balanced use of both carbohydrates and fats. It reflects a shift in substrate utilization, typically occurring as exercise intensity moves from moderate to higher levels, pushing the body's metabolic systems to adapt.
During the ventilatory threshold, oxygen uptake does not decrease; rather, it continues to increase to meet the body's rising demand for oxygen due to increased muscle activity. What does increase significantly at the VT is ventilation, but this is to expel the rising amount of carbon dioxide produced from intensified aerobic metabolism, not because oxygen uptake decreases.
The ventilatory threshold is not characterized by the cessation of lactic acid production. On the contrary, lactic acid production actually increases as exercise intensity surpasses the ventilatory threshold. This increase is due to anaerobic metabolism becoming more prominent as the body's demand for energy exceeds the oxygen available for aerobic metabolism.
The ventilatory threshold is not directly related to the peak levels of blood pressure during exercise. Blood pressure typically increases throughout the duration of exercise as a response to increased cardiac output and vascular resistance but reaching peak blood pressure does not denote the ventilatory threshold. The ventilatory threshold is more about metabolic and respiratory changes than cardiovascular peaks.
Understanding the ventilatory threshold helps in designing appropriate exercise programs that optimize endurance and performance by manipulating the intensity levels at which different metabolic pathways are predominantly used.
15.
At what stage of change is a client who has consistently engaged in training for two weeks?
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Action stage
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Maintenance stage
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Adaptation stage
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Preparation stage
Correct answer: Action stage
The Stages of Change model states that individuals progress through a series of behavior change stages and that movement through these stages is not linear but instead is cyclical. This model is made up of the following five stages:
- Precontemplation: Does not exercise and is not planning to start within the next six months
- Contemplation: Does not exercise but is planning to start within six months
- Preparation: Planning to exercise soon or is sporadically exercising
- Action: Exercising for less than six months
- Maintenance: Exercising consistently for more than six months
In the context of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change, the Action stage refers to the period where individuals are actively involved in modifying their behavior to achieve a particular goal. A client who has been consistently training for two weeks is in the Action stage because they are actively implementing the changes necessary to develop a new behavior—regular exercise. This stage is crucial because the new behavior is not yet ingrained; the individual is consciously putting effort into this change.
The Maintenance stage is incorrect for a client who has only been training for two weeks. This stage involves continued commitment to sustaining new behavior and avoiding relapse after the behavior has been successfully integrated into the person's lifestyle, typically considered to be after six months of consistent behavior. The focus here is on long-term continuation and stabilization, which is not yet relevant for someone only two weeks into their new routine.
The Adaptation stage is not a recognized stage in the Transtheoretical Model. While the concept of adaptation may occur throughout various stages as an individual adjusts to new behaviors, it is not specifically one of the stages defined by the model. The term might be used more generally in other contexts to describe how a person or system adjusts to changes, but it is not applicable as a stage of change for this model.
The Preparation stage is also incorrect for a client who has been training consistently for two weeks. In this stage, individuals are planning to take action within the immediate future and might begin making small changes but have not yet started consistent action. It precedes the Action stage and involves intent without full action implementation. Since the client has already been actively engaging in the new behavior (training) for two weeks, they have moved beyond Preparation into Action.
16.
Which exercise most closely resembles the action of placing dishes on a high shelf?
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Dumbbell shoulder press
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Dumbbell lateral raise
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Dumbbell clean and press
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Pull-up
Correct answer: Dumbbell shoulder press
The action of placing dishes on a high shelf most closely resembles the dumbbell shoulder press. This exercise involves extending the arms overhead to lift weights in a vertical motion, which mimics the action of reaching upward to place objects on a high surface. Both activities primarily engage the deltoid muscles in the shoulders, along with assistance from the triceps to extend the elbows and stabilize the movement in the upper body, making the shoulder press an accurate representation of this everyday activity.
The dumbbell lateral raise is incorrect because it primarily targets the abduction of the arms to the sides rather than overhead lifting. In this exercise, the arms are lifted away from the body to the sides up to shoulder height, which activates the lateral portion of the deltoids but does not mimic the vertical lifting motion required when placing dishes on a high shelf. The movement pattern and muscle engagement are therefore different from what is needed for overhead storage tasks.
Although the dumbbell clean and press does involve a pressing movement similar to the shoulder press, it includes additional components that are not comparable to placing dishes on a shelf. The clean portion of the exercise involves lifting the dumbbells from the ground to the shoulders in a rapid motion, which is more dynamic and involves more of the body, including the lower back, hips, and legs. This complexity and the explosive nature of the clean make it less similar to the relatively simple and controlled action of shelf placement.
The pull-up primarily involves pulling the body upward with the arms, engaging the latissimus dorsi, biceps, and other back muscles to execute the lift against gravity. This exercise focuses on vertical pulling rather than pushing and has minimal resemblance to the overhead pushing movement used when placing dishes on a high shelf. The muscle groups and movement pattern in pull-ups are substantially different from those used in an overhead pressing action.
While all these exercises involve some form of upper body strength, the dumbbell shoulder press most accurately replicates the specific motion and muscle activation needed for placing dishes on a high shelf. The other listed exercises, while beneficial for overall strength and conditioning, do not mimic the precise movement pattern of this everyday task.
17.
What does the term frontside mechanics specifically refer to in the context of sprinting?
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The alignment of the lead leg and the pelvis during the stride
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The propulsion phase where the rear leg drives off the ground
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The rotation of the arms and shoulders during sprinting
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The synchronization of the upper body with lower limb movements
Correct answer: The alignment of the lead leg and the pelvis during the stride
In sprinting, frontside mechanics refers specifically to the positioning and movement of the lead leg and pelvis during a runner's stride. This term is crucial in understanding how sprinters optimize their speed and efficiency. Effective frontside mechanics involve maintaining a strong alignment of the lead leg as it moves up and forward during the stride, with the thigh reaching parallel to the ground, and the pelvis remaining stable and level. This alignment is critical for achieving maximum force application and stride length while minimizing air time and energy waste.
The following are explanations for the other answer options:
- The propulsion phase where the rear leg drives off the ground: This description pertains to what is often referred to as backside mechanics rather than frontside mechanics. Backside mechanics deal with the actions of the leg behind the body, including how the rear leg pushes off the ground to propel the sprinter forward. While both frontside and backside mechanics are integral to sprinting, they involve different phases of the running cycle and affect performance in different ways.
- The rotation of the arms and shoulders during sprinting: The rotation of the arms and shoulders, while important for maintaining balance and contributing to the overall power and momentum of a sprint, is not what is described by frontside mechanics. Frontside mechanics is specifically concerned with the lower body, particularly the movement and position of the lead leg and pelvis. The upper body's movement, including arms and shoulders, is a separate aspect of sprinting technique.
- The synchronization of the upper body with lower limb movements: While the synchronization of the upper and lower body is crucial for efficient running and achieving optimal performance, it is not what is defined as frontside mechanics. This term is used exclusively to describe the actions and alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during the stride. Synchronization involves the overall coordination of body movements to enhance running efficiency but is broader and not limited to the specific aspects defined by frontside mechanics.
Frontside mechanics in sprinting focuses exclusively on the efficient and effective positioning and movement of the lead leg and pelvis during the stride. Misunderstanding this term as relating to other aspects of the sprinting motion, such as backside mechanics or upper body movements, can lead to confusion about the specific biomechanical focuses necessary for optimal sprint performance.
18.
Which of the following is the best place to manually monitor heart rate?
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Wrist
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Carotid artery
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Antecubital space
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Temple
Correct answer: Wrist
With the palm facing up, place the index and middle finger about one inch below the thumb. This will give a safe, accurate reading of an individual's heart rate.
Although the carotid artery has a strong pulse, this location is not recommended because pressure on this artery disrupts blood flow to the brain, which can lead to dizziness as well as an inaccurate measurement.
The antecubital space is a location for a stethoscope during a blood pressure reading. The temple can be used to check pulse, but it is less reliable than the wrist.
19.
What is the recommended body fat percentage range for a 34-year-old adult female?
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20-30%
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10-15%
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35-45%
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5-15%
Correct answer: 20-30%
Although many clients have goals of weight loss, what is really implied is a loss of fat mass while retaining or perhaps gaining lean muscle mass. While scale weight can measure and monitor weight loss, it is unable to determine the relative ratios of fat and muscle mass potentially being lost.
While there is no universally accepted, standardized percentage, studies indicate that body fat percentage for adult females is between 20% and 30%. For adult males, the range is between 10% to 20%.
20.
Which of the following is an example of instrumental support?
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Giving a neighbor a ride to the gym
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Listening to a friend vent about their weight-loss frustrations
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Educating a client on how much cardio should be performed each week for good health
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Working out alongside one's mother
Correct answer: Giving a neighbor a ride to the gym
Instrumental support directly helps an individual achieve a goal. Giving a neighbor a ride to the gym allows them to complete their workout.
Listening to a friend venting refers to emotional support. Educating a client refers to informational support. Exercising with one's mother refers to companionship support.