PTCB PTCE Exam Questions

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1.

Which of the following is not a patient barrier? 

  • Prescriber error

  • Forgetfulness 

  • Severity of disease 

  • Medication cost 

Correct answer; Prescriber error

Prescriber error is not an example of a patient barrier. 

Forgetfulness, severity of disease, and medication cost are all examples of patient barriers. 

2.

Which of the following regarding viable air sampling is inaccurate?

  • Samples must be obtained every 12 months as a requirement for recertification.

  • When equipment or facilities are built

  • After equipment or facilities are serviced

  • When concerns are raised about the end-product

Correct answer: Samples must be obtained every 12 months as a requirement for recertification.

Air samples are obtained from ISO Class 5, 7, and 8 environments.

Samples are obtained:

  • When equipment or facilities are built
  • After equipment or facilities are serviced
  • Every 6 months as a requirement for recertification (not every 12 months)
  • When concerns are raised about the end-product

3.

The average wholesale price (AWP) is the average price from their wholesaler that pharmacies may purchase a drug for. The AWP for drugs can be found in which of the following?

  • Red Book

  • Green Book

  • Blue Book

  • Black Book

Correct answer: Red Book

The AWP for drugs can be found in the Drug Topics Red Book. The Red Book is available online, and it will provide you with the updated list price of drugs.

The other choices are incorrect as the AWP for drugs can be found in the Red Book, not the Green Book, Blue Book, or Black Book. 

4.

Which medication is a selective serotonin receptor agonist used for migraine headaches? 

  • Imitrex

  • Fiorinal 

  • Fioricet 

  • Cafergot

Correct answer: Imitrex 

Imitrex (sumatriptan) is a selective serotonin receptor agonist that causes vasoconstriction and results in the relief of migraine headaches. 

Fiorinal (aspirin-butalbital-caffeine), Fioricet (butalbital-acetaminophen-caffeine), and Cafergot (ergotamine-caffeine) are all used to help treat migraine headaches. 

5.

Which of the following pharmacy abbreviations indicates a route of administration?

  • BUC

  • NS

  • PC

  • D5W

Correct answer: BUC

BUC/buc means "in the cheek".

NS is the abbreviation of normal saline.

PC means "after meals".

D5W is 5% dextrose in water.

6.

Which copy of DEA Form 222 does the pharmacy retain?

  • Blue (third page)

  • Brown (first page)

  • Green (second page)

  • Yellow (fourth page)

Correct answer: Blue (third page)

The pharmacy is required to retain the blue copy (third page) of DEA Form 222.

The supplier is required to retain the brown copy (first page) of DEA Form 222. The DEA is required to retain the green copy (second page) of DEA Form 222.

There is not a yellow copy (fourth page) of DEA Form 222.

7.

If a drug product is required to be stored in warm conditions, what should the temperature range be?

  • 30° to 40°C

  • 40° to 50°C

  • 20° to 25°C

  • 8° to 15°C

Correct answer: 30° to 40°C

The temperature range 30° to 40°C is considered warm.

The temperature range 20° to 25°C is considered to be room temperature. The temperature range 8° to 15°C is considered to be cool. The temperature range 40° to 50°C is considered to be excessive heat.

8.

Calcium channel blockers can be used to treat hypertension and angina. Which of the following is classified as a calcium channel blocker?

  • Verapamil

  • Atenolol

  • Clonidine

  • Tamsulosin

Correct answer: Verapamil

Verapamil is classified as a calcium channel blocker. Other calcium channel blockers include amlodipine, nifedipine, nicardipine, felodipine, nisoldipine, and diltiazem.

Atenolol is classified as a beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist. Clonidine is classified as an alpha2-adrenergic receptor agonist. Tamsulosin is classified as an alpha1 receptor antagonist.

9.

Which type of container would be used for Ciloxan?

  • Dropper bottle

  • Applicator bottle

  • Collapsible tube

  • Prescription bottle

Correct answer: Dropper bottle

Ciloxan is opthalmic ciprofloxacin, and a dropper bottle is used to dispense ophthalmic drops. A dropper bottle is also used when administering nasal, otic, and oral liquids in drop form.

Applicator bottles are used to administer liquids to wounds or skin surfaces. Collapsible tubes are used to dispense semisolids. Prescription bottles are used to dispense low-viscosity liquids.

10.

Which of the following root words does the drug rabeprazole act on?

  • Gastr/o

  • Accous/o

  • Derm/o

  • Ophthalm/o

Correct answer: Gastr/o

Rabeprazole is the generic for Aciphex, a proton pump inhibitor used for gastrointestinal reflux disorder (GERD), therefore acting on the stomach. The root word gastr/o is related to the stomach.

The root word accous/o is related to the ears. The root word derm/o is related to the skin. The root word opthalm/o is related to the eyes.

11.

All except which of the following information is classified as prescriber information?

  • BIN

  • NPI number

  • DEA number

  • State license

Correct answer: BIN

A BIN is a bank identification number, which is used to identify third-party prescription insurance plans.

The following information is required from a prescriber:

  • NPI number
  • DEA number
  • State license
  • Name
  • Office address

12.

A Proventil® inhaler contains 200 metered puffs per inhaler. A prescription has the instructions to take two puffs four times daily. 

How many days will this inhaler last?

  • 25 days

  • 20 days

  • 15 days

  • 30 days

Correct answer: 25 days

To determine the number of puffs per day: 2 puffs x 4 times a day = 8 puffs daily.

200 puffs total / 8 puffs daily = 25 days

13.

If a retail pharmacy transfers a Schedule III medication to another retail pharmacy, which of the following is required?

  • The transferring pharmacy must send an invoice to the receiving pharmacy.

  • The transferring pharmacy must complete DEA Form 222 and send the appropriate copy to the receiving pharmacy.

  • The transferring pharmacy must complete DEA Form 106 and send an invoice to the receiving pharmacy.

  • The transferring pharmacy must receive the written request from the receiving pharmacy prior to transferring the medication.

Correct answer: The transferring pharmacy must send an invoice to the receiving pharmacy.

If a retail pharmacy transfers a Schedule III to Schedule V medication to another retail pharmacy, the pharmacy must send an invoice to the receiving pharmacy. The records of the transfer must be maintained by both pharmacies for two years.

DEA Form 222 is required when a Schedule II medication is transferred between pharmacies. DEA Form 106 is used to report theft or significant losses of Schedule II through Schedule V medications. A written request is not required for transferring medications between pharmacies.

14.

Fentanyl is an opioid classified as a high-alert medication. High doses of fentanyl could cause which of the following?

  • Fatal respiratory suppression

  • Hypertension

  • Fatal bleeding

  • Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: Fatal respiratory suppression

High doses of fentanyl could cause fatal respiratory suppression. Opioids are prescribed to treat pain; however, they have the ability to cause fatal respiratory suppression if taken in excess.

Anticoagulants are classified as high-alert medication because they cause fatal bleeding. Insulin is classified as a high-alert medication because it could cause hypoglycemia. Neuromuscular blockers are classified as high-alert medication because they could cause cessation of breathing.

15.

What should be used to clean the ports on an IV bag?

  • 70% isopropyl alcohol

  • Vinegar

  • Benzyl alcohol

  • Antibacterial soap

Correct answer: 70% isopropyl alcohol

70% isopropyl alcohol (IPA) is used to clean injection ports and critical sites of ampules or vials.

Vinegar and antibacterial soap are not used during the sterilization of compounding equipment. Benzyl alcohol is used as a preservative in compounding. 

16.

Which of the following is not a core element of medication therapy management (MTM) services? 

  • MR

  • MTR

  • PMR

  • MAP

Correct answer: MR

Medication reconciliation (MR) is comparing a patient's medication order with the medications that the patient has taken prior to being admitted to the hospital. It is somewhat similar to an MTM but not a core element. 

The medication therapy review (MTR), personal management record (PMR), and medication-related action plan (MAP) are all core elements of an MTM. 

17.

Meloxicam and etodolac are non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) prescribed to patients for which purpose?

  • Block cyclooxygenase enzymes

  • Delay the breakdown of incretins

  • Neutralize stomach acid

  • Suppress nerve activity

Correct answer: Block cyclooxygenase enzymes

Meloxicam and etodolac are non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Their mechanism of action is to block cyclooxygenase enzymes. NSAIDs are used to treat pain, inflammation, and fever. Other NSAIDs include celecoxib, diclofenac, naproxen, and ibuprofen.

Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors are used to delay the breakdown of incretins to treat type II diabetes. Antacids are used to neutralize stomach acid to treat heartburn or upset stomach. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are used to suppress nerve activity to treat seizures or psychiatric disorders.

18.

Dispensing errors can be categorized into which two types of errors? 

  • Mechanical and judgment

  • Mechanical and administration

  • Judgment and administration 

  • Judgment and monitoring 

Correct answer: Mechanical and judgment 

Mechanical dispensing occurs during the preparation and dispensing of a prescription. Judgment error results in a pharmacist making an incorrect decision during the screening of a patient, during drug utilization evaluation, or while counseling a patient. 

Administration errors occur when the medication is being administered to the patient. Monitoring errors occur from the failure to review a prescribed regimen for appropriateness and detection of problems. 

19.

Which Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program focuses on ensuring that females who are starting isotretinoin therapy are not pregnant and will not become pregnant while using isotretinoin?

  • iPLEDGE

  • THALIDOMID REMS

  • Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.)

  • Clozaril National Registry

Correct answer: iPLEDGE

iPLEDGE is the REMS program that focuses on making sure females who are starting isotretinoin therapy are not pregnant and will not become pregnant.

THALIDOMID REMS is the REMS program that has been established because Thalomid (thalidomide) causes severe birth defects and venous thromboembolic events. Tikosyn In Pharmacy System (T.I.P.S.) is the REMS program that has been established to communicate the risk of cardiac arrhythmias that are associated with taking Tikosyn (dofetilide). Clozaril National Registry is the REMS program that has been established as a database to record and reference the white blood cell count of patients who take Clozaril (clozapine).

20.

Which drug classification contains the suffix "-olone"?

  • Steroid

  • Local anesthetic

  • Macrolide

  • Antiulcer

Correct answer: Steroid 

Corticosteroid drug names contain the suffix "-olone." Examples are triamcinolone, prednisolone, methylprednisolone.

The suffix "–caine" is used for local anesthetic agents, the suffix "–thromycin" is used for macrolide agents, and the suffix "–prazole" is used for antiulcer agents.