BCSP ASP Exam Questions

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21.

How quickly must each injury or illness be recorded?

  • Within seven calendar days of receiving information that a recordable injury or illness has occurred

  • Within seven calendar days of the incident

  • Within 14 calendar days of the incident

  • Within 14 calendar days of receiving information that a recordable injury or illness has occurred

Correct answer: Within seven calendar days of receiving information that a recordable injury or illness has occurred

An employer must enter each recordable injury or illness in the 300 and 301 incident reports within seven calendar days of receiving information that a recordable injury has occurred.

22.

All the following are closely held beliefs of supporters of Theory X EXCEPT:

  • Work can be pleasant and natural if conditions are favorable

  • Most people lack initiative and need to be directed or coerced

  • Most people are self-centered and unintelligent

  • Work is a burden to most people

Correct answer: Work can be pleasant and natural if conditions are favorable

Theory X was developed by Douglas McGregor in 1960 as a way of explaining organization management and employee motivation. Proponents of Theory X operate under the belief that work is inherently distasteful to most people; that they will attempt to avoid work whenever possible; that most people are not ambitious, have little desire for responsibility, and prefer to be directed; that most people have little aptitude for creativity in solving organizational problems; that most people are self-centered and must be closely controlled; and that most people are resistant to change and are unintelligent.

Theory Y, also developed by McGregor, states that employees are motivated primarily at the esteem and self-actualization levels of need. It is in clear contrast to Theory X. Theory Y states that work can be as natural as play if the conditions are favorable; people will be self-directed and creative to meet their work and organizational objectives if they are committed to them; people will be committed to their quality and productivity objectives if rewards that address higher needs such as self-fulfillment are in place; the capacity for creativity spreads throughout organizations; most people can handle responsibility because creativity and ingenuity are common in the population; and under these conditions, people will seek out responsibility.

23.

What is the volume of 2.6 mol of gas at a pressure of 33.2 psi and a temperature of 324K?

Use the formula PV = nRT.

  • 30.6 L

  • 3.6 L

  • 17.04 L

  • 34.8 L

Correct answer: 30.6 L

Solve using the Ideal Gas Law equation:

PV = nRT

Where:

Pressure (P) = 33.2 psi

Volume (V) = (solve)

Number of molecules or moles (n) = 2.6 mol

Universal gas constant (R) = 8.314J/mol x  K  (converts to 1.206L x psi/mol x K using the Value Gas Constant table of page 203 of the reference)

Temperature = 324 K

Insert values:

33.2psi (V) = (2.6 mol) (1.206L x psi/mol x K) (324 K)

Solve for V:

V = (2.6 mol) (1.206L x psi/mol x K) (324 K) / 33.2 psi

The units will cancel out (psi, mol, and K), leaving only liters (L):

V = 2.6 × 1.206 L x 324 / 33.2

V = 30.6004 L

V = 30.6 L

24.

Toxins entering the body through inhalation will MOST LIKELY affect which structure?

  • Alveoli

  • Liver

  • Stomach

  • Brain

Correct answer: Alveoli

Air enters through the nose and mouth and ultimately ends up in the alveoli. Toxin particles can get trapped in the blood vessels. The liver, stomach, and brain are not part of the inhalation route of entry. 

25.

What effect will 150–300 rad (an acute dose of radiation) have on the human body?

  • Diarrhea and malaise

  • Temporary blood change

  • Hemorrhaging

  • Death

Correct answer: Diarrhea and malaise

Acute doses of radiation at 150–300 rad will cause diarrhea and malaise.

Hemorrhaging and death are more serious symptoms of higher doses of radiation. Temporary blood change occurs at lower doses of radiation.

26.

Which of the following is an example of a direct cost?

  • Wages for lost time

  • Loss of production time 

  • Time lost on investigation

  • Decreased morale leading to lower productivity

Correct answer: Wages for lost time

Direct costs are the medical and wage replacement costs of the injured worker. Indirect costs are the "side" costs that result from an incident. Indirect costs are estimated to be 10–50 times the amount of direct costs (the most widely accepted number is 20 times the direct costs). Indirect costs can include decreased productivity, lower morale, increased training costs, etc. 

Direct costs are typically covered by insurance, and indirect costs are not. When calculating a loss, make sure to include indirect costs (use a multiplier that your company agrees to) to demonstrate the accurate impact of a workplace incident.

27.

How long does it take most people to become aware during a fall? 

  • 1/3 of a second

  • 1 second

  • 3 seconds

  • 5 seconds

Correct answer: 1/3 of a second

It takes an average person 1.3 seconds to become aware of their situation during a fall. Based on this data, a person would have fallen 7 feet by the time they are aware,  based on gravity and average speed.

28.

Work stations should accommodate what percentile of female workers to what percentile of male workers?

  • 5th percentile female to 95th percentile male

  • 95th percentile female to 5th percentile male

  • 50th percentile female to 50th percentile male

  • 10th percentile female to 90th percentile male

Correct answer: 5th percentile female to 95th percentile male

It is common practice to design workstations to accommodate 5th percentile female workers to 95th percentile male workers. This combination covers 90% of the population. 

29.

Which agency is responsible for automobile safety with the mandate to reduce accidents on the nation's highways?

  • NHTSA

  • DOT

  • EPA

  • OSHA

Correct answer: NHTSA

The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) is responsible for automobile safety with the mandate of reducing accidents on the nation's highways.

30.

Which of the following sections of an insurance contract states who and what is being covered by the contract?

  • Declarations

  • Conditions

  • Exclusions

  • Obligations

Correct answer: Declarations

The declarations section is the first part of an insurance contract. It states who and what risks or property are covered by the contract.

The conditions section lists provisions that must be met or the claim can be denied by the insurer. The exclusions section takes coverage away for some types of risk. For example, a homeowner's policy may exclude floods. Obligations are not a section of an insurance contract.

31.

Which of the following is NOT a "privacy case" for the OSHA 300 form?

  • Repeat injury

  • Mental illness

  • HIV infection

  • Injury to an intimate body part

Correct answer: Repeat injury

A repeat injury is not considered a "privacy case," and the employee's name should be entered into the OSHA 300 form. Mental illness, HIV infection, and injury to an intimate body part are all part of the privacy exemption. 

32.

When implementing a comprehensive workplace violence prevention program, management should do all the following, EXCEPT: 

  • Interview employees

  • Develop a policy 

  • Establish goals

  • Allocate resources

Correct answer: Interview employees

Interviewing employees is not an element of implementing a comprehensive workplace violence prevention program. 

When implementing a comprehensive workplace violence prevention program, management should develop a policy, establish goals, allocate resources, and uphold standards. 

33.

A lockout device should be placed on which of the following?

  • An energy-isolating device

  • A control panel

  • Access to equipment

  • A utility line

Correct answer: An energy-isolating device

The placement of a lockout device shall be affixed to an energy-isolating device, according to the lockout-tag out procedure for that particular equipment. 

Control panels, access to the equipment, and utility lines are not suitable lockout locations. 

34.

During an emergency, which person is responsible for all aspects of response and communication?

  • Incident commander

  • Safety manager

  • Emergency response team member

  • Fire department

Correct answer: Incident commander

The incident commander is responsible for all aspects of response and communication during an emergency situation. 

The safety manager, emergency response team members, and fire department are key contributors during an emergency. Sometimes, the fire department chief can take over the incident commander role. 

35.

With regard to facilitating teams, what is the smallest number that can constitute a team?

  • Three

  • Two

  • Four

  • Five

Correct answer: Three

Three is the smallest number that can constitute a team, according to the BCSP (exam creators). Fewer than three are considered a partnership, not a team.

36.

Which of the following biological hazards is associated with water-based aerosols?

  • Legionella

  • Anthrax

  • Botulism

  • Hantavirus

Correct answer: Legionella

Legionella can cause Legionnaires' disease, a bacterial disease commonly associated with water-based aerosols. Key causes are poorly maintained air conditioning, cooling towers, and potable water systems (see OSHA's Legionellosis - Legionnaires' Disease and Pontiac Fever). 

37.

Which ISO standard covers risk management?

  • 31001

  • 9001

  • 14001

  • 45001

Correct answer: 31001

The ISO 31001 family of standards covers risk management.

ISO 9001 covers quality, 45001 covers health and safety, and 14001 covers environmental management.

38.

All the following are audits conducted to comply with ISO 14000, EXCEPT:

  • Gap audit

  • Internal audit

  • Surveillance audit

  • Certification audit

Correct answer: Gap audit

A gap audit is not an official audit associated with ISO 14000. 

An internal audit is a requirement of ISO 14001. A surveillance audit is conducted bi-annually by the certification company. A certification audit is conducted for initial certification or every 3 years as re-certification. 

39.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

  • The lower the p-value, the less likely the result

  • The lower the p-value, the more likely the result

  • The lower the p-value, the less significant the result

  • The p-value assumes that the null hypothesis is false

Correct answer: The lower the p-value, the less likely the result

The p-value is defined as the probability of obtaining a result as extreme as the one observed, assuming that the null hypothesis is true. The lower the p-value, the less likely the result, so the more “significant” the result. 

A p-value of 0.05, for example, represents a 5% chance of an outcome that is extreme, given the null hypothesis.

40.

What is the act of manually grasping an object of definable size and mass with two hands and vertically moving the object without mechanical assistance?

  • Lifting task

  • Lifting frequency

  • Significant control

  • Lifting index

Correct answer: Lifting task

Lifting task is a term used in the NIOSH lifting equation. It is defined as the act of manually grasping an object of definable size and mass with two hands and vertically moving the object without mechanical assistance.

Lifting frequency is the average number of lifts per minute over a 15-minute period. A condition requiring precision placement of the load at the destination of the lift is known as significant control. A relative estimate of the level of physical stress associated with a particular manual lifting task is the lifting index.