CDR RD Exam Questions

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61.

Using the chart below and the moving average model, determine the second forecast for the seven-day moving average.

Day# of patients who selected fish
150
254
360
456
553
663
769
862
964

  • 59.57

  • 55.70

  • 56

  • 69

Correct answer: 59.57

The moving average model is a time series method of forecasting in which a group of past records is averaged and used as the forecast. The next forecast (second) is calculated by dropping the first number and adding the next seven numbers and then averaging that sum.

To solve for the second forecast (total of days 2 through 8): 54 + 60 + 56 + 53 + 63 + 69 + 62 = 417 / 7 = 59.57 

62.

If a child is chronically malnourished, which growth parameter will be affected first?

  • Weight

  • Length

  • Head circumference

  • BMI

Correct answer: Weight

If a child is chronically malnourished, growth parameters will first affect weight, then length, and then head circumference. 

BMI for children is age and gender-specific. This growth parameter can be used starting at the age of two years; adult BMI charts should not be used for interpretation.

63.

Among the following scenarios, identify the example that most accurately represents a strategic pricing tactic within a marketing program, aimed at stimulating product sales.

  • A cafeteria manager offers soda at a reduced price during slow times in the hope that customers will make an additional purchase, such as fries, candy, or popcorn.

  • A restaurant manager puts candles on tables, dims the lights, and sprays incense before dinner service to add desirable attributes for customers.

  • A large community hospital offers discounted meal options for its staff during lunch rushes.

  • An elementary school offers free dessert with each meal during National School Lunch Week to increase participation.

Correct answer: A cafeteria manager offers soda at a reduced price during slow times in the hope that customers will make an additional purchase, such as fries, candy, or popcorn.

In the "marketing mix", price is the amount of money that is charged for a product/service or the perceived value of a product/service in exchange for its benefit. A cafeteria manager offering soda at a reduced price during slow times in the hope that customers will make an additional purchase is practicing strategic pricing.

A restaurant manager adding candles on tables, dimming the lights, and spraying incense before dinner service is an example of contributing to the product in the marketing mix. While a large community hospital offering discounts during lunch rushes involves discounts, it primarily focuses on providing a benefit to hospital staff during busy periods. It's more about employee perks or convenience than a marketing-driven pricing strategy aimed at influencing consumer behavior and increasing sales. An elementary school offering free dessert with each meal during National School Lunch Week to increase participation is an example of a promotion.

64.

Based on the numbers below, determine the cost of food used.

  • Beginning inventory: $1,567
  • Ending inventory: $2,985
  • Purchases: $10,327
  • Sales: $24,674
  • Sales tax: $1,401
  • Operating expenses: $3,861

  • $8,909

  • $11,894

  • $14,872

  • $13,305

Correct answer: $8,909

In a profit and loss statement, the cost of food used is determined by adjusting the cost of food purchased at the beginning and ending inventories for the month.

To solve:

  1. Purchases + beginning inventory = cost of goods available to be used
  2. Cost of good available to to be used - ending inventory = cost of goods used

Plug in numbers:

  1. $10,327 + $1,567 = $11,894
  2. $11,894 - $2,985 = $8,909

The other variables are not needed to solve for cost of goods used.

65.

If you were to use a stethoscope to listen to a patient's bowel sounds, which form of physical examination technique would you be using?

  • Auscultation

  • Inspection

  • Palpatation

  • Percussion

Correct answer: Auscultation

Auscultation is the use of hearing (with or without an instrument, such as a stethoscope) to listen to body sounds (such as bowel sounds).

Inspection is general observation using the senses of sight, smell and hearing. However, this does not include using an instrument. Palpatation is a tactile (touch) examination to feel tenderness, pulse, or to assess body structures. Percussion is an assessment of sound to determine the borders of body organs.

66.

Which of the following do the RDAs take into account that the DRIs don't?

  • Nutrient deficiencies

  • Age

  • Gender

  • Pregnancy

Correct answer: Nutrient deficiencies

The RDAs (Recommended Dietary Allowances) were developed in response to nutrient deficiencies. They were created, in part, to help reduce the risk of nutritional deficiencies. The DRIs (Dietary Reference Intakes) do not take this into account. Both take age, gender, and pregnancy status into account.

67.

During an initial nutrition assessment, an RD identifies that a client is anemic and encourages her to eat more foods with iron. The RD provides the client with a handout of high-iron foods, shows her pictures of high-iron foods, and develops a high-iron meal plan with foods the client prefers. When the client returns for a follow-up nutrition assessment, she reports that she has increased her consumption of iron-rich foods and has higher energy levels. The RD praises the client and encourages the continuation of the new eating patterns.

What type of change strategy is the RD using?

  • Positive reinforcement

  • Avoidance learning

  • Extinction

  • Positive cause-effect

Correct answer: Positive reinforcement

Positive reinforcement is a behavior modification method that focuses on encouraging repetition of a certain behavior and provides meaningful attention from a superior.

Avoidance learning is when a client learns to escape undesirable consequences or avoid criticism by improving future performance. Extinction focuses on reducing an undesirable behavior until it goes away, or becomes extinct. Positive cause-effect is a fabricated term.

68.

In charting, which of the following are part of the ADIME format?

a. Diagnosis

b. Implementation

c. Medication

d. Assessment

  • a, d

  • a, b, d

  • a, c

  • b, d

Correct answer: a, d

ADIME stands for Assessment, Diagnosis, Intervention, Monitoring, and Evaluation.

69.

The SOP/SOPP is utilized by RDs or RDNs to:

  • Reflect the minimum competent level of practice and professional performance

  • Develop international standards and codes to protect customers

  • Write regulations when laws are passed

  • Create patient education materials

Correct answer: Reflect the minimum competent level of practice and professional performance

According to AND (Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics), the SOP/SOPP is utilized by RDs/RDNs to:

  • Evaluate practice and performance through self-assessment
  • Reflect the minimum competent level of practice and professional performance
  • Measure quality and performance improvement through outcome examples
  • Outline quality indicators for practice and performance
  • Guide professional continuum growth and practice development

The Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) is funded by FAO and WHO to develop international standards and codes to protect customers. The appropriate federal agency is responsible for writing regulations when laws are passed.

70.

In creating a cancer screening tool, you want to include signs and symptoms that are early warning signs of cancer, according to the American Cancer Society, which uses the acronym CAUTION. Which of the following is not included on the American Cancer Society CAUTION list?

  • Unintentional weight loss

  • A sore that doesn't heal

  • Change in bowel or bladder habits

  • Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere

Correct answer: Unintentional weight loss

Unintentional weight loss is not part of the ACS CAUTION list.

The American Cancer Society CAUTION list includes:

  • Change in bowel or bladder habits
  • A sore that doesn't heal
  • Unusual bleeding or discharge
  • Thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere
  • Indigestion or difficulty swallowing or chewing
  • Obvious change in a wart or mole
  • Nagging cough or hoarseness

71.

What might a cost-benefit ratio of 1:4 indicate?

  • For every $1 required to run a nutrition clinic, there is $4 of medical savings

  • For every $10 required to run an exercise facility, there is $4 of medical savings

  • For every $1 saved on doctor's appointments, $4 is spent on medications

  • For every 1 renal patient admitted, 4 doctors are required to provide care

Correct answer: For every $1 required to run a nutrition clinic, there is $4 of medical savings

A cost-benefit analysis examines program outcomes in terms of money saved and determines whether the goal of the intervention is worthwhile in terms of costs. A cost-benefit ratio of 1:4 (cost:benefit) reflects the statement, "For every $1 required to run a nutrition clinic, there is $4 of medical savings."

72.

Which of the following foods would pose a choking hazard to a toddler?

  • Peanut butter

  • Spaghetti

  • Mashed potatoes

  • Beans

Correct answer: Peanut butter

Foods that are round, have skins/peels, or stick to the roof of the mouth pose a choking hazard to toddlers. Examples of these are grapes, peanut butter, hard pieces of fruits and vegetables, tough or chewy meats, and hotdogs cut into circle-shaped slices.

Mashed potatoes, spaghetti, and beans would not pose a choking hazard to a toddler, as these don't stick to the roof of the mouth and have a smooth texture.

73.

Which of the following factors would not increase a patient's metabolic rate?

  • Reading

  • Smoking a pack of cigarettes

  • Consuming two cups of coffee

  • Cycling

Correct answer: Reading

Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the minimum amount of energy needed at rest in fasting to carry on the involuntary work of the body. BMR is primarily affected by sex, age, body composition, and thyroid hormones. But it is also affected by extremes in environmental temperature; a tropical climate can induce a 5-20% increase in BMR. Additionally, metabolic stimulants (caffeine, alcohol, nicotine) can induce a 7-15% increase in BMR. 

74.

Which of the following medications is contraindicated for a T2DM patient with CHF?

  • Thiazolidinediones

  • Glimepiride

  • Insulin secretagogues

  • Glucotrol

Correct answer: Thiazolidinediones

Thiazolidinediones (Actos) improve peripheral insulin sensitivity. This oral glucose-lowering medicine can worsen CHF by promoting weight gain and edema; therefore, it is not appropriate for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and congestive heart failure (CHF).

Glimepiride, or Amaryl, stimulates the pancreas to make more insulin, thereby causing the possibility of low blood sugar. Therefore, this medication requires education on hypoglycemia. Insulin secretagogues, such as Glucotrol, promote insulin secretion, and work to lower glucose levels.

75.

What treatment is advised when a patient is diagnosed with refractory celiac disease?

  • Immunosuppressive medications

  • Gluten-free diet

  • Intensive gluten-free lifestyle

  • Vitamin A supplementation

Correct answer: Immunosuppressive medications

A diagnosis of refractory celiac disease is made when patients do not respond to a gluten-free diet or respond only temporarily to a gluten-free diet. Celiac disease has an autoimmune response characterization. Once all potential sources of gluten have been ruled out, the patient is classified as having refractory celiac disease, and immunosuppressive medications become the option for treatment. The most commonly used ones include steroids, azathioprine, and cyclosporine. Anti-inflammatory medications may also be used.

A gluten-free diet and the elimination of all gluten sources in the diet, medication, cosmetics, etc., happen before diagnosis with refractory celiac disease. Vitamin A supplementation is a distractor.

76.

Which of the following is equal to 1 ounce-equivalent protein food?

  • 1 large egg

  • 1 tablespoon of peanut butter

  • 2 oz of almonds

  • 1 slice of bread

Correct answer: 1 large egg

Portion sizes do not always align with one cup or one ounce-equivalent, due to variations in foods' concentration and water content. For example, 1 large egg is equal to 1 ounce-equivalent protein food.

One tablespoon of peanut butter is equal to 1/2 ounce-equivalent protein foods, 2 ounces of almonds is equal to 2 ounce-equivalent protein foods, and 1 slice of bread is equal to 1 ounce-equivalent grain.

77.

Which of the following characteristics should a liquid have in order to foam?

  • Low surface tension

  • High surface tension

  • High vapor content

  • Low vapor content

Correct answer: Low surface tension

In order for a liquid to foam, the liquid must have low surface tension. For example, egg whites at room temperature whip quicker and yield a larger volume due to the low surface tension.

If the egg whites were cold, the surface tension would be higher and the mixture would collapse. If the egg whites had a high vapor content, the mixture would also collapse.

78.

A lunch dish on the "regular" diet menu is the chicken salad. Its ingredients include chicken breast, baby spinach, a hard boiled egg, celery, dried cranberries, and chopped pecans with a honey raspberry vinaigrette dressing, 

How many of those ingredients would need to be changed in order to make the dish vegan?

  • 3

  • 2

  • 1

  • 4

Correct answer: 3

A vegan diet excludes all animal foods and animal products. Therefore, the chicken breast, egg, and honey would all need to be removed from the dish (with vegan substitutions made) to make it vegan.

79.

Which of the following signs might indicate intolerance to a tube feeding advancement?

  • Vomiting or diarrhea

  • Patient complains of hunger and strong appetite

  • Upgrading a patient from mild to moderately malnourished

  • No change in weight status and feelings of fatigue

Correct answer: Vomiting or diarrhea

Enteral Nutrition (EN) should be started early (within 24 to 48 hours) and advanced as tolerated. The following indicators should be used to monitor tolerance:

  • Intake/output: Identify negative or positive balances
  • Bowel movements: Constipation or diarrhea
  • Tube placement: Ensure feeding tube is correctly placed
  • Abdominal distension: Abdomen should be soft and non-distended, not hard and distended
  • Weight: Desire stable weight; fluctuation may signify fluid intolerance
  • Lab values: Look at electrolytes, glucose, and other nutrition-related lab values

Complaints of hunger, increased fatigue, and changes in a patient's nutrition status are not indicators of intolerance.

80.

Which of the following statements is true related to cultural competency in health education?

  • Expression of cultural identity has an impact on food choices

  • Cultural identity is completely observable

  • The educator needs to only be aware of the client’s relevant cultural characteristics

  • It is the client’s responsibility to bring up any cultural beliefs

Correct answer: Expression of cultural identity has an impact on food choices

Cultural identity is made up of both observable and non-observable characteristics. These include things like age, race/ethnicity, socioeconomic status, geographic location, social forces, etc.

The educator should be aware of their own personal and professional assumptions, beliefs, and attitudes in order to be more aware of what they may need to understand about the client in the process of providing effective education. The educator needs to facilitate a collaboration with the client to discuss these, which begins with informed negotiation.