CDR RD Exam Questions

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101.

An adult patient has an MCV result of 75 fl. Based only on this information, which of the following could you EXCLUDE as a diagnosis?

  • Vitamin B12 deficiency

  • Iron deficiency

  • Chronic renal failure

  • Anemia of chronic disease

Correct answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

MCV is elevated with vitamin B12 deficiency.

MCV normal levels for adults are 80-100 fl. MCV is low with iron deficiency and chronic renal failure. MCV can be normal or low with anemia of chronic disease. 

102.

What is a key element in disciplinary action?

  • Providing consistency

  • If non-unionized, settling using a written formal grievance procedure

  • If unionized, settling informally between the employee and supervisor

  • Comparing the employee's performance against other top-performing employees

Correct answer: Providing consistency

A key element in positive discipline practices is to provide consistency. Any disciplinary action taken should be immediate, consistent, impersonal, based on known expectations, and legally defensible. An employee's performance should not be compared against that of other employees; rather, it should be compared against department standards. Disciplinary action should always be done in private. The goal of disciplinary action is to correct the behavior and save the employee.

If non-unionized, grievances should be settled informally between the employee and supervisor. If unionized, grievances should be settled by a contract that states a written formal grievance procedure.

103.

Determine the break-even point for Christy's Cafeteria based on the following information:

  • Total fixed costs = $22,250
  • Variable costs per average-priced meal = $2.60
  • Selling price per average-priced meal = $4.75

  • 10,348

  • 2.15

  • 49,444

  • 4,684

Correct answer: 10,348

The break-even point (BE) is the point at which expenses (fixed costs [FC] and variable costs [VC]) and revenue (income) are equal. 

To solve for BE, use one of the following methods:

  1. BE in number of units sold (use to determine the number of units that need to sell to break even) = FC / Sales - VC
  2. BE in sales volume (use to determine the number of dollars that need to be earned to break even) = FC / 1- (VC/Sales)

This question asks for the number of units (meals) that need to be sold to break even, so method #1 should be used:

  1. 22,250 / 4.75 - 2.60 = 10,348
  2. BE = 10,348 average-priced meals
  3. To break even, Christy's Cafeteria needs to sell 10,348 averaged-priced meals. If they sell less than this, they will lose money; if they sell more than this, they will make a profit.

104.

Which of the following is not a part of the dietitian’s discharge documentation?

  • Lab orders

  • Patient’s weight

  • Failed interventions

  • Nutrition therapy outcome

Correct answer: Lab orders

Lab results would be provided, but lab orders are for in-facility use. 

Any information that may be helpful to create a positive outcome for the patient can be included in discharge documentation. That includes failed interventions, which may help prevent a repeat failure or provide insight into where the patient was at the time of discharge (e.g., not ready for that intervention at that time).

105.

You are looking at a sample population of 175 people and want to determine the prevalence rate of developing AIDS over a 12-year period.

  • At the beginning of the study, you note 12 existing cases of AIDS.
  • The first follow-up at 6 years noted 15 new cases of HIV.
  • The second follow-up at 12 years noted 28 new cases.

What is the prevalence rate?

  • 31%

  • 25%

  • 45%

  • 377%

Correct answer: 31%

Prevalence is the number of existing cases of a condition or disease in a given population.

To measure prevalence rate, take the total number of cases (12 + 15 + 28 = 55) and divide by the sample population (175). Therefore, prevalence would be 55/175 = 0.31, or a 31% prevalence rate.

106.

At the end of a nutritional assessment, if the registered dietitian determines that the problem cannot be modified by further nutrition care, what is the appropriate next step?

  • Discontinue nutrition care

  • Initiate enteral feeding

  • Send a referral to outpatient nutrition services

  • Establish a new nutrition diagnosis

Correct answer: Discontinue nutrition care

At the end of the nutritional assessment, if the registered dietitian determines that the problem cannot be modified by further nutrition care, discharge or discontinuation from this episode of nutrition care may be appropriate (NCM).

The other options are continuations of care in the nutrition care process.

107.

Which of the following is not true of the nutrition intervention in the Nutrition Care Process?

  • Always involves treating the etiology of the problem

  • Includes the nutrition prescription

  • Should include specific, measurable goals

  • Organized into four domains

Correct answer: Always involves treating the etiology of the problem

It is not always possible to treat the etiology of the problem, although this is the focus whenever possible. In these cases, decreasing the signs and/or symptoms of the etiology should be the focus of treatment.

The other statements are true of the nutrition intervention.

108.

Luis and Ryan formed a partnership and together created a sports nutrition company called Mr. Nutrition. After five years, they have acquired 7,345 clients, generated $5,743,904 in sales, and spent $3,633,700 since starting the company in 2012.

What ratio can they use to measure their company's ability to generate excess income in relation to their sales?

  • Profitability ratio

  • Solvency ratio

  • Activity ratio

  • Liquidity ratio

Correct answer: Profitability ratio

A profitability ratio measures a company's ability to generate excess income in relation to sales.

A solvency ratio refers to an organization's ability to meet its long-term debt. An activity ratio refers to how effectively an organization utilizes its assets (e.g., inventory turnover). A liquidity ratio refers to an organization's ability to meet its short-term debt and current financial obligations.

109.

Which of the following is not true about telehealth?

  • Telehealth is never covered by insurance companies.

  • Telephone consultations are considered telehealth.

  • Video consultations conducted via the internet are considered telehealth.

  • Telehealth saves time over traditional office visits.

Correct answer: Telehealth is never covered by insurance companies.

Telehealth may be reimbursable by insurance companies, depending on the policy of coverage. Telehealth also includes both telephone and video interactions. One widely cited benefit of telehealth is that it saves time by allowing clients to receive care without making a trip to a provider's office.

110.

Sonia was hired as a diet technician at a local community hospital. During her orientation, she was given material that outlined the work she was expected to perform, the procedures to use, and a time schedule.

What type of material was she given?

  • Work schedule

  • Job specification

  • Job description

  • Organizational chart

Correct answer: Work schedule

A work schedule is an outline of the work to be performed, the procedures to be used, and a time schedule for a particular position. This material is helpful in training new employees and is usually given to them right after they have been hired.

A job specification is a statement of minimum standards that must be met in order to apply for a particular job. A job description is an organized list of required duties, skills, and responsibilities for a particular position. An organizational chart is a graphic representation of the relationships and groupings between positions and their functions.

111.

Ellen is a clinical nutrition manager at a hospital. She believes her employees love to work as clinical dietitians, will constantly learn new things, and will continue to work more efficiently as a team. Which theory describes the type of attitude Ellen has?

  • Theory Y

  • Theory X

  • Theory Z

  • Game theory

Correct answer: Theory Y

Theory Y describes a participative style of management which "assumes that people will exercise self-direction and self-control in the achievement of organizational objectives to the degree that they are committed to those objectives." This theory assumes people view work as positive, participative, and democratic.

Theory X assumes that individuals inherently dislike work and avoid it if possible. This theory assumes people view work as negative.

Theory Z assumes workers accept responsibility when they understand the big picture; employees are the greatest assets of a company.

Game theory is a decision-making technique focusing on the highest gain with the smallest amount of losses, regardless of what the competition does.

112.

Which of the following contributes the largest amount to total body weight in an adult male with 7% body fat?

  • Water

  • Lean tissue

  • Bone

  • Adipose tissue

Correct answer: Water

Water contributes to about 60-70% of weight in a lean adult, which is the majority of the weight. 

Lean tissue, adipose tissue, and bones also contribute to body weight. 

113.

According to the current DRIs, which of the following does not fall within the acceptable macronutrient distribution range for percent of total calorie intake?

  • Protein 40%, Carbohydrate 40%, Fat 20%, 

  • Protein 10%, Carbohydrate 65%, Fat 25%

  • Protein 20%, Carbohydrate 45%, Fat 35%

  • Protein 35%, Carbohydrate 45%, Fat 20%

Correct answer: Protein 40%, Carbohydrate 40%, Fat 20%

DRI for macronutrient distribution:

  • Protein: 10-35%
  • Carbohydrate: 45-65%
  • Fat: 20-35%

Previous to 2005, carbohydrate was 50% or more and fat was 30% or less.

114.

Which of the following statements is not true?

  • Thiamine will break down quickly in an acidic environment.

  • Riboflavin should be stored away from sunlight, which breaks it down easily.

  • Vitamin C is easily damaged by oxidation.

  • B-vitamins can leach into water when a food containing them is boiled.

Correct answer: Thiamine will break down quickly in an acidic environment.

Thiamine can be damaged by being heated for a long amount of time. However, it is stable in an acidic environment.

Riboflavin (a B-vitamin) is easily broken down by light. It is the most sensitive nutrient to sunlight damage. Vitamin C is easily damaged by oxidation. Cooking foods with water-soluble vitamins in water can cause those vitamins to leach into the water.

115.

Which United States government agency is responsible for regulating food products of biotechnology?

  • FDA

  • USDA

  • EPA

  • APHIS

Correct answer: FDA

The FDA regulates food products made with biotechnology.

The USDA regulates agricultural products made with biotechnology, and APHIS (Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service) is the department of the USDA that is primarily involved in that regulation. The EPA regulates herbicides and pesticides that use biotechnology.

116.

Which of the following programs has eligibility based on income?

  • Child and Adult Care Food Program

  • Special Milk Program

  • Elderly Nutrition Program

  • Summer Food Service Program for Children

Correct answer: Child and Adult Care Food Program

The Child and Adult Care Food Program uses income to determine eligibility. Those at or below 130% of the poverty level receive free meals, and those between 130% and 185% receive reduced-price meals.

The Special Milk Program, Elderly Nutrition Program, and Summer Food Service Program for Children do not use income as an eligibility criterion.

117.

Most produce can be stored in the refrigerator (34-36 degrees Fahrenheit); however, some fruits ripen best at room temperature. Which of the following fruits should you store at room temperature?

  • Pears

  • Apples

  • Mushrooms

  • Oranges

Correct answer: Pears

Pears, avocados, bananas, and tomatoes ripen best at room temperature. Dried fruit should also be stored at room temperature.

The aging process (ripening) is delayed by storing fruits in the controlled atmosphere of a refrigerator or freezer due to the reduced oxygen environment. Apples, mushrooms, and oranges are examples of produce that should be stored in the refrigerator.

118.

The gut microbiome is responsible for synthesizing which vitamins?

  • Vitamin K and biotin

  • Vitamin A and vitamin D

  • Vitamin B6 and vitamin D

  • Vitamin E and vitamin C

Correct answer: Vitamin K and biotin

The bacteria in the gut microbiome contribute nutritionally by synthesizing folate, biotin, and vitamin K. They are also responsible for digesting insoluble fiber to generate short-chain fatty acids that serve as the fuel for enterocytes.

119.

In a clinical setting, a registered dietitian is assessing a patient with a complex medical history and multiple nutritional issues. The dietitian is gathering information to determine the underlying causes of the patient's nutritional problems. In which step of the nutrition care process does the documentation of etiology occur?

  • Nutrition diagnosis

  • Nutrition assessment

  • Nutrition intervention

  • Nutrition monitoring and evaluation

Correct answer: Nutrition diagnosis

The nutrition diagnosis is documented using the problem, etiology, signs, and symptoms (PES) format. The etiology allows for a greater understanding of the conditions in which the diagnosis came about and increased individualization of the intervention.

The nutrition assessment is conducted on individuals who have been determined to be at nutrition risk, using five domains (food-/nutrition-related history, anthropometrics, biochemical data, nutrition-focused physical exam findings, and client history). The nutrition intervention is the action taken to treat nutrition problems. Monitoring and evaluation clarify the effects of the nutrition intervention and follow up on the signs and symptoms that were identified in the nutrition assessment.

120.

"Given a variety of carbohydrate sources, participants will be able to differentiate between complex and simple carbohydrates with an accuracy of 90%."

What is the statement above an example of?

  • Cognitive objective

  • Affective objective

  • Psychomotor objective

  • Visual objective

Correct answer: Cognitive objective

Cognitive objectives measure intellectual processes, such as knowing, perceiving, recognizing, thinking, conceiving, judging, and reasoning.

Affective objectives measure feeling, emotion, attitude, appreciation, and value. Psychomotor objectives measure behaviors or physical skills. Visual objective is a fabricated term.