Firefighter I II Exam Questions

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141.

Once an emergency has been reported, the information must be transmitted to the responding units or personnel.  Alarm notification made to the stations, apparatus, or individuals may be one or a combination of a visual, audible, or electronic notification. Which of the following is an example of an electronic alert notification?

  • Scrolling message board

  • Station bell

  • Air horn

  • Station lights

Correct answer: Scrolling message board

A scrolling message board is an example of an electronic alert notification. Other examples of electronic alert notifications include a computer terminal screen with an alarm, direct telephone connection with telecommunications center, and a radio with tone alert.

A station bell and an air horn are examples of audible alert notifications. Station lights are examples of visual alert notifications.

142.

During the primary search, which of the following is not one of the jobs the search team should perform?

  • Operate individually to maximize efficiency

  • Check the known or most likely location of victims

  • Check the fire conditions and report any changes

  • Check all affected areas of the structure

Correct answer: Operate individually to maximize efficiency

In a primary search, firefighters should never work alone; the buddy system ensures safety, accountability, and rapid assistance in case of emergencies. Primary search operations prioritize speed, safety, and a thorough check of areas where victims are likely to be found. 

Identifying likely victim locations, monitoring fire conditions, and covering all impacted areas are crucial for a successful search.

143.

A fire extinguisher’s agent to inhibit or interrupt the combustion reaction and stop flame production is termed chain breaking and is the primary method used by which of the following agents?

  • Clean agent

  • Water

  • Dry powder

  • Foam

Correct answer: Clean agent

Clean agents, such as Halon and other halocarbon replacements, work by disrupting the chemical reaction of the fire, breaking the combustion chain at a molecular level. This method is highly effective for extinguishing Class B (flammable liquids) and Class C (electrical) fires without leaving residue.

Water primarily extinguishes fires by cooling the fuel to below its ignition temperature, which is effective for Class A fires involving ordinary combustibles like wood or paper.

Dry chemical agents, such as monoammonium phosphate, also disrupt the combustion chain reaction but are most commonly used on Class B and C fires. While similar to clean agents, they leave a powdery residue.

Foam extinguishers suppress fire by forming a blanket over the fuel, cutting off the oxygen supply, and preventing vapor release. This method is especially effective for Class B fires involving flammable liquids.

144.

During firefighting operations, a firefighter may encounter situations that require calling for immediate aid. 

Which of the following would not be considered a situation that warrants a MAYDAY call?

  • Encountering heavy fire

  • Becoming entangled or trapped

  • Becoming lost or disoriented

  • Dislodging the facepiece of a SCBA

Correct answer: Encountering heavy fire

Encountering heavy fire, while a dangerous situation, does not automatically require a MAYDAY call. Instead, the firefighter should communicate the conditions to the Incident Commander (IC) and request backup or additional resources, but it is not considered immediately life-threatening like other scenarios.

Becoming entangled or trapped is a serious and life-threatening situation, as it can prevent escape or mobility. A firefighter must call a MAYDAY to get help immediately. Becoming lost or disoriented during operations puts the firefighter at high risk, particularly in a fire where visibility and navigation are crucial to safety, requiring a MAYDAY call. 

Dislodging the facepiece of a SCBA compromises the firefighter’s ability to breathe in a dangerous environment, which is a direct threat to life, requiring a MAYDAY call.

145.

Any fire department radio that may be used in a hazardous atmosphere or explosive atmospheres must be which of the following?

  • Intrinsically safe

  • Explosion proof

  • Fire proof

  • Hazard proof

Correct answer: Intrinsically safe

Fire department radios, particularly handheld radios, must be tested and labeled as intrinsically safe. This ensures that the radio will not inadvertently cause a fire or explosion if the radio transmit key is pushed in the atmosphere.

Fire proof, explosion proof, and hazard proof are not terms used to describe safety issues with radios.

146.

What is the definition of a "group," according to NIMS-ICS?

  • Organizational level having responsibility for a specified functional assignment at an incident without regard for a specific geographical area

  • Organizational level within the sections that fulfills specific support functions

  • Organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area

  • Organizational level having functional/geographical responsibility for major segments of incident operations

Correct answer: Organizational level having responsibility for a specified functional assignment at an incident without regard for a specific geographical area

A group is defined as an organizational level, equal to division, having responsibility for a specified functional assignment at an incident without regard for a specific geographical area.

147.

Hazardous materials may pose a number of different risks to firefighters responding to an incident. These risks may include potential health effects. Some of these health effects may take years to appear and typically are long term. Which of the following terms best describes this kind of potential health effect of a hazardous material?

  • Chronic health effects

  • Acute health effects

  • Delayed health effects

  • Post incident health effects

Correct answer: Chronic health effects

Chronic health effects may not show up in a firefighter for many years after the exposure. The most common of these effects is the development of cancer as a result of the exposure to the hazardous material.

Acute health effects are short term and usually appear within hours or days of the exposure.

Delayed health effects and post incident health effects are not terms used to describe hazardous material health effects.

148.

What NFPA covers Emergency Services Communications Systems?

  • NFPA 1221

  • NFPA 1220

  • NFPA 1971

  • NFPA 1001

Correct Answer: NFPA 1221

NFPA 1221 covers Emergency Services Communication Systems.

149.

Kernmantle rope is used for life safety applications. Which of the following descriptions best explains the structure of a kernmantle rope?

  • A synthetic rope composed of a braided sheath over a core of the main load-bearing strands

  • Rope that consists of several individual strands twisted together in groups

  • Rope with strands uniformly intertwined throughout its structure

  • Rope with a core made of strands uniformly intertwined, protected by a herringbone-patterned sheath 

Correct answer: A synthetic rope composed of a braided sheath over a core of the main load-bearing strands

Kernmantle rope consists of two primary components: the "kern," or core, which bears most of the load (around 75% of the rope’s strength), and the "mantle," or braided sheath, which protects the core from abrasion and environmental damage. The core is typically made from continuous synthetic fibers designed to carry the load, while the sheath is tightly woven for additional durability.

Laid rope, often referred to as twisted rope, is made by twisting individual strands together in groups, which is a different design that is less durable than kernmantle for life safety applications.

Braided rope has all of its strands uniformly intertwined in one continuous weave, providing flexibility but not the same load-bearing capacity as kernmantle rope.

Braid-on-braid rope features a herringbone-patterned sheath but differs from kernmantle as its core and sheath both contribute more equally to the rope’s overall strength, whereas kernmantle relies primarily on its core for strength.

150.

Which of the following statements is the most true about the size-up process of a fire department incident?

  • The size-up begins during the response

  • The size-up is conducted as the initial activity after arriving at the scene

  • Only the Incident Commander or other officers are involved in a size-up

  • Once the fire attack begins, size-up operations end

Correct answer: The size-up begins during the response

Every firefighter should begin the size-up during the response to the scene of any incident. 

Evaluation of information provided from the dispatch center, pre-planning documents and information, and personal knowledge gained during onsite inspections all figure into the initial size-up. Every firefighter performs a size-up, not just the officers or the incident commander. Gathering information is an ongoing process during any incident.

151.

What is a K-tool used for?

  • Pulling lock cylinders

  • Rapidly accessing outward swinging latch-type doors

  • Opening double-swinging doors equipped with panic hardware

  • Forcing padlocks

Correct answer: Pulling lock cylinders

The K-tool is designed to pull lock cylinders from doors. Once the cylinder is removed, the locking mechanism can be accessed directly, allowing firefighters to open the door without excessive damage. It is especially useful in forcible entry situations where minimal destruction is preferred.

The K-tool is not used for gaining access to outward-swinging latch-type doors, which requires different methods like using a Halligan tool. Double-swinging doors with panic hardware are generally opened with standard entry techniques, not by removing lock cylinders. Forcing padlocks typically requires a different tool, such as bolt cutters or a Halligan tool, rather than a K-tool.

152.

The choice of salvage procedures performed by firefighters depends on all except which of the following?

  • Time of day

  • Number of personnel available

  • Extent and location of the fire

  • Current weather conditions

Correct answer: Time of day

The choice of salvage procedures performed by firefighters does not depend on the time of day.

The choice of salvage procedures performed by firefighters depends on the number of personnel available, the extent and location of the fire, and the current weather conditions. The type, size, and quantity of the contents are also factors.

153.

Loss control is a term used by firefighters to refer to which of the following?

  • Minimization of property loss

  • Minimization of personnel loss

  • Minimization of victim loss

  • Minimization of water loss

Correct answer: Minimization of property loss

Loss control is a term used by firefighters to refer to the minimization of property loss. Firefighters work in a fashion that minimizes damage to property before, during, and after an incident.

Firefighters do not use the term loss control to describe the minimization of personnel loss, victim loss, or water loss.

154.

When carbon dioxide is discharged from a carbon dioxide extinguisher, what can happen if you come in contact with the discharge?

  • You can get frostbite

  • You can get burned

  •  You can get shocked

  • You can get cut

Correct answer: You can get frostbite

Carbon dioxide extinguishers discharge gas at very low temperatures, which can cause frostbite upon contact with skin. The extreme cold of the gas, especially around the discharge horn, is the main risk of direct exposure.

You will not get burned because the extinguisher releases a cold gas, not heat. Static electricity buildup can occur on the horn, but the main risk is frostbite, not shock. Cuts are not a common injury from handling carbon dioxide discharge, as there are no sharp elements involved in the gas release.

155.

Which of the following is not an indicator that a hose is out of service (OOS)?

  • Female coupling out

  • Male coupling out

  • Knot in hose

  • Tag

Correct answer: Female coupling out

The three ways to indicate a section of hose needs to be repaired and/or tested are:

  • Male coupling out
  • Knot in the hose
  • Out-of-service tag

156.

Which of the following diseases is described as: highly communicable and has several types, affects a person's liver, some varieties may go on for many years without exhibiting symptoms, and two of the major varieties have vaccines available?

  • Hepatitis

  • HIV/AIDS

  • Tuberculosis 

  • Glaucoma 

Correct answer: Hepatitis

Hepatitis is a highly communicable disease state that firefighters and all healthcare workers must be concerned about. Therefore, it is important to maintain all required vaccinations during your career to prevent the spread of Hepatitis and other potential communicable diseases. The proper use of body substance isolation and personal protective equipment is mandatory with all patient care activities.

Hepatitis has four variants:

  • Hepatitis A
  • Hepatitis B
  • Hepatitis C
  • Hepatitis D

Vaccines are available for Hepatitis A and B.  Firefighters should be immunized against these diseases.

HIV/AIDS is a highly communicable disease that doesn't have a known vaccine. It affects a victim's immune system not so much the patient's liver as seen with Hepatitis. The best way to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS is to always wear the appropriate PPE and use the proper BSI with each and every patient that you come in direct contact with.

Tuberculosis is a highly communicable disease that mainly affects a person's respiratory system and function. It doesn't affect the patient's liver as seen with Hepatitis. 

Glaucoma is a condition that affects a victim's eyes and vision. However, it isn't communicable, doesn't have a known vaccination, and doesn't affect a person's liver.

157.

Which standpipe system is also referred to as a house line, equipped with 1 and 1/2 inch hose and nozzle, and is stored on a hose rack system?

  • Class II system

  • Class I system

  • Class III system

  • FDC

Correct answer: Class II system

A Class II system, sometimes referred to as house lines, is designed for use either by trained building occupants or fire department personnel. These systems are equipped with 1 and 1/2 inch hose and nozzle and they are stored on a hose rack system.

158.

Which type of composite building material is composed of small flakes of wood merged together with glue to form boards used for interior and exterior wall panels and furniture?

  • Particle board

  • Finger-jointed timber

  • Laminated timber

  • Medium density fiberboard

Correct answer: Particle board

Particle board is composite building material composed of small particles and flakes of wood merged together with glue to form boards used for furniture and walls.

Finger-jointed timber is composite building material composed of small pieces of wood merged to form boards using various types of glue. 

Laminated timber is composite building material that consists of sheets of wood used for floor decking or walls. 

Medium density fiberboard is composite building material that is a type of laminated wood closely resembling hardwood and is used for doors and decorative moldings.

159.

When using air monitoring equipment, firefighters should be aware of its limitations. Many monitors are designed and calibrated for specific gases and will not detect or alarm for other gases. 

What may be the only sign that a firefighter could observe indicating high levels of another gas in the atmosphere?

  • Lower levels of oxygen in the atmosphere

  • Unknown gas alarm

  • Report from a remote monitoring station

  • Testing with a multi-gas sensor

Correct answer: Lower levels of oxygen in the atmosphere

Lower levels of oxygen in the atmosphere may be the only sign of another gas, as many hazardous gases can displace oxygen. Monitoring oxygen levels can alert firefighters to the presence of an unknown gas, even if the specific gas isn’t detected by the equipment.

Unknown gas alarms are not standard on typical fireground equipment and would not provide this type of warning. Remote monitoring stations are rarely used in most field operations and are generally not available. Testing with a multi-gas sensor may detect some gases, but not all; if a gas displaces oxygen, the lower oxygen levels could still be the first noticeable sign.

160.

What is the difference between dry chemical and dry powder extinguishers?

  • Dry chemical extinguishers are used for Class A-B-C fires and/or Class B-C fires; dry powder agent extinguishers are used only on Class D fires

  • Dry powder extinguishers are used for Class A-B-C fires and/or Class B-C fires; dry chemical extinguishers are used only on Class D fires.

  • Dry chemical extinguishers are used for Class A-B fires and/or Class A-C fires; dry powder agent extinguishers are used only on Class A fires

  • Dry powder extinguishers are used for Class A-B fires and/or Class A-C fires; dry chemical extinguishers are used only on Class A fires

Correct answer: Dry chemical extinguishers are used for Class A-B-C fires and/or Class B-C fires; dry powder agent extinguishers are used only on Class D fires

Dry chemical extinguishers are designed to fight Class A (ordinary combustibles like wood or paper), Class B (flammable liquids), and Class C (electrical) fires. They can be labeled as either A-B-C or B-C, depending on the specific formulation. 

Dry powder extinguishers are specifically designed for Class D fires, which involve combustible metals like magnesium, titanium, or sodium. These fires require a powder agent that isolates the metal from oxygen.