FSBPT NPTE-PT Exam Questions

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121.

Use the following scenario to answer the question.

What is the MOST appropriate duration for the patient's exercise sessions?

  • 30–60 minutes with 5–10 minutes of warm-up and cool-down

  • 60–90 minutes with 5–10 minutes of warm-up and cool-down

  • 30–60 minutes with no warm-up or cool-down

  • 60–90 minutes with no warm-up or cool-down

Correct answer: 30–60 minutes with 5–10 minutes of warm-up and cool-down

Outpatient cardiac rehabilitation is a common treatment for patients recovering from a myocardial infarction (MI). The primary goals of outpatient cardiac rehabilitation are to improve functional capacity, progress toward normal daily activities, promote risk factor modification, and encourage energy conservation techniques during recovery. The exercise duration guideline for outpatient cardiac rehabilitation is 30–60 minutes with 5–10 minutes of warm-up and cool-down.

An exercise session longer than 60 minutes is not recommended in the activity guidelines for outpatient cardiac rehabilitation. Warm-up and cool-down periods are both recommended during outpatient cardiac rehabilitation exercise sessions.

122.

A physical therapist is treating a patient with right shoulder pain in an outpatient clinic. During the treatment, the therapist is preparing to perform joint mobilization on the patient's right glenohumeral joint.

Of the following, what is the BEST position to place the patient's shoulder in?

  • 40-55 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of horizontal adduction without rotation

  • 55-70 degrees of flexion and 30 degrees of horizontal abduction without rotation

  • Full abduction and full external rotation

  • 30 degrees extension with 15 degrees internal rotation

Correct answer: 40-55 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of horizontal adduction without rotation

The loose-packed position of a joint is the position in which the capsule and soft tissues are in the most relaxed position. The loose-packed position of the glenohumeral joint is 40-55 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of horizontal adduction without rotation.

The close-packed position of a joint is that at which the joint capsule and other soft tissues are maximally tensed. The close-packed position of the glenohumeral joint is full abduction and full external rotation.

123.

A physical therapist is planning to treat a patient who has a diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA). The therapist reviews clinical treatment and symptoms of RA in order to prepare for the session.

Which of the following statements about RA is TRUE?

  • NSAIDs can be used to treat RA patients.

  • The onset of RA is always gradual.

  • RA is characterized by unilateral and asymmetrical joint involvement.

  • Weight gain is one systemic feature of RA.

Correct answer: NSAIDs can be used to treat RA patients.

NSAIDs, immunosuppressive agents, and antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) may all be prescribed to treat rheumatoid arthritis.

RA is characterized by bilateral and symmetrical joint involvement; weight loss, fever, and extreme fatigue are all systemic features of this disease. The onset may be gradual or abrupt.

124.

A physical therapist is performing an evaluation on a patient in an outpatient clinic who has wrist pain from repetitive hand use. During the physical exam, the therapist performs Eichoff's test to assess for de Quervain's tenosynovitis. Which of the following procedures is correct for this test?

  • The examiner passively moves the patient's wrist into ulnar deviation

  • The examiner passively pulls the patient's wrist and thumb into ulnar deviation with longitudinal traction

  • The patient actively moves their wrist into ulnar deviation

  • The patient actively moves their wrist into radial deviation

Correct answer: The examiner passively moves the patient's wrist into ulnar deviation

Eichoff's test is used to identify de Quervain's tenosynovitis (tendonitis of the abductor pollicis longus and/or extensor pollicis brevis). Eichoff's test is performed by having the patient make a fist with their thumb flexed underneath their fingers, then passively moving the patient's wrist into ulnar deviation. A positive test is indicated by pain reproduction in the wrist.

Finkelstein's test is performed by passively pulling the patient's wrist and thumb into ulnar deviation with longitudinal traction. Active wrist motion from the patient is not a component of Eichoff's test or Finkelstein's test for de Quervain's tenosynovitis.

125.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a patient with piriformis syndrome who has hip joint pain and impaired hip mobility that is not in a capsular pattern. What is the MOST appropriate treatment for the patient?

  • Soft tissue mobilization of the piriformis muscle

  • Transcutaneous electrical neuromuscular stimulation

  • Alternating heat and cold

  • Hip joint mobilization

Correct answer: Soft tissue mobilization of the piriformis muscle

Piriformis syndrome is a condition where the piriformis muscle becomes dysfunctional, leading to restriction in hip internal rotation, pain with palpation of the piriformis muscle, referral of pain to the posterior thigh, and weakness of external rotation. Physical therapy interventions for non-arthritic hip joint pain can focus on patient education, joint mobilization, soft tissue mobilization of muscles impairing hip mobility, therapeutic exercise, and neuromuscular reeducation. Because the patient has hip mobility limitations related to the piriformis muscle, soft tissue mobilization of the piriformis muscle is the most correct option.

Although pain-reducing modalities such as TENS, heat, and cold are appropriate for patients with piriformis syndrome, soft tissue mobilization of the performance muscle is more appropriate given the patient's complaint of non-arthritic hip joint pain. For patients with non-arthritic hip joint pain, hip joint mobilization is recommended only if the patient has a capsular pattern of restriction.

126.

A physical therapist is working with a 54-year-old male patient in an outpatient clinic for persistent low back pain. During the session, the patient indicates that they have recently started hormone therapy to mitigate the effects of aging on their overall vitality. However, the patient also notes recent challenges with maintaining an erection for sexual intercourse. The physical therapist decides to contact the patient's physician to discuss his new symptoms.

Of the following, which is the MOST likely cause of the patient's new symptoms?

  • Hypothyroidism

  • Parkinson's disease

  • Diabetes mellitus

  • This is a normal consequence of aging

Correct answer: Hypothyroidism

Erectile dysfunction is a male reproductive system disorder that causes the inability to achieve and maintain an erection. Erectile dysfunction can be caused by a variety of reasons including drugs, neurogenic conditions, and vascular conditions. Hypothyroidism is a hormonal cause associated with erectile dysfunction. Other hormonal causes associated with erectile dysfunction include hypopituitarism and decreased androgen levels with hypogonadism. Since the patient recently started new hormone therapy without providing specific drugs being used, a hormonal cause should be suspected first.

Parkinson's disease is a neurogenic cause associated with erectile dysfunction. Diabetes mellitus is a vascular cause associated with erectile dysfunction. Although many older men struggle with erectile dysfunction, it is not expected for every individual.

127.

A physical therapist is providing treatment to a 40-year-old female patient who has a diagnosis of type 2 complex regional pain syndrome. During the session, which of the following is MOST appropriate?

  • Active assisted range of motion

  • Aerobic exercise

  • Strength training

  • Biomechanical education

Correct answer: Active assisted range of motion

Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is divided into type 1 and type 2. Type 1 CRPS presents with intense pain throughout a limb without specific damage to the peripheral nervous system. Type 2 CRPS involves specific damage to the peripheral nervous system, such as radiculopathy, plexopathy, or mononeuropathies. While movement is important for both types of CRPS, type 2 CRPS may require more passive or active-assisted range-of-motion techniques and splinting to allow injured nerve structures to heal.

Aerobic exercise and strength training may be appropriate for type 2 CRPS but not generally for type 1 CRPS. Pain neuroscience education is considered important for the treatment of CRPS, not biomechanical education.

128.

You are working with a patient recovering from a recent spinal cord injury who does not have the necessary abdominal muscle strength to perform an effective cough. You have been asked to assist the patient with airway clearance. Which of the following is the BEST airway clearance technique for this patient?

  • Assisted cough

  • Tracheal stimulation

  • Huffing

  • Endotracheal suctioning

Correct answer: Assisted cough

An assisted cough is an airway clearance technique that is used on patients who do not have the necessary abdominal muscles to perform an effective cough. The assisted cough technique is when the physical therapist uses their hands or fist to force a patient to exhale air. This technique is generally used on patients who have a spinal cord injury.

Tracheal stimulation is an airway clearance technique that is used on patients who do not have the ability to cough on command, like infants or those with a brain injury. Huffing is an airway clearance technique that is used on patients who have collapsible airways, such as those with COPD. Endotracheal suctioning is an airway clearance technique that is used on patients who have not been able to clear their airways in any other manner; this would be an appropriate technique for a patient in a coma.

129.

A physical therapist is conducting an evaluation of a patient in an outpatient facility for balance training. During the subjective portion, the patient notes that they have impaired light touch sensation, experience recurrent skin infections, and experience impaired melanin production.

Based on this information, which is the MOST likely affected structure?

  • Epidermis

  • Dermis

  • Hypodermis

  • Subcutaneous tissues

Correct answer: Epidermis

The epidermis is a skin layer that itself contains five layers. The five layers of the epidermis from outermost to innermost are as follows:

  1. Stratum corneum: shingle-like dead cells filled with keratin
  2. Stratum lucidum: formed from dead cells; only occurs in thick portions of the palms and soles of the feet
  3. Stratum granulosum: contains live keratinocytes and Langerhans cells
  4. Stratum spinosum: spiny layer which also contains keratinocytes and Langerhans cells
  5. Stratum basale: contains epidermal cells, melanocytes, and Merkel cells

Because the patient has reported problems with light touch sensation, skin infection, and melanin production, it is most likely that the epidermis is affected.

The dermis contains structures such as blood vessels, nerve endings, and hair follicles; these functions do not fit the patient's description as well as the epidermis. The hypodermis contains loose connective tissue and fat tissue for insulation and support. The term "subcutaneous tissue" is another name for the hypodermis.

130.

A physical therapist is performing an evaluation on a patient who has experienced a recent traumatic brain injury. During the physical exam, the therapist wants to assess only motor function related to cranial nerves (CNs). 

Which of the following nerves are MOST appropriate for this assessment?

  • CN III, CN IV, CN VI

  • CN I, CN II, CN VIII

  • CN V, CN VII, CN IX

  • CN V, CN II, CN VI

Correct answer: CN III, CN IV, CN VI

There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves, each with unique functions and testing procedures. Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI are pure motor nerves that control eye movements and pupillary constriction. 

Cranial nerves I, II, and VIII are pure sensory nerves that carry information related to smell, vision, hearing, and equilibrium. Cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X are mixed motor and sensory nerves involved in a variety of functions.

131.

You are working with a patient in a subacute rehabilitation facility on gait training and lower extremity strength exercise. During the session, the patient reports new symptoms in their legs which are affecting their performance. Following the session, you decide to contact the patient's physician because you believe they are experiencing lymphedema.

Which of the following is the LEAST likely symptom reported by the patient?

  • Numbness and tingling in the legs

  • Pain in the legs

  • Heaviness in the legs

  • Difficulty controlling movement with the legs

Correct answer: Numbness and tingling of the affected limb

The most common symptoms of lymphedema are:

  • Heaviness
  • Tightness
  • Pain
  • Swelling
  • Persistent edema
  • Loss of ROM and function of the affected arm or leg

Numbness and tingling are not primary symptoms of this condition.

132.

A physical therapist is providing treadmill training with body weight support for a patient with an incomplete spinal cord injury. Which of the following frequencies and session lengths are MOST appropriate?

  • 5 days/week, 30 minutes/session

  • 3 days/week, 30 minutes/session

  • 3 days/week, 10 minutes/session

  • 5 days/week, 10 minutes/session

Correct answer: 5 days/week, 30 minutes/session

Locomotor training for individuals with incomplete spinal cord injury may include treadmill training using body weight support. This treatment is considered high-intensity and high-frequency and is recommended to be performed 4 to 5 days per week at 20 to 30 minutes per session. This treatment is typically provided for 8 to 12 weeks and may involve progression to decrease body support or manual assistance over time.

3 days per week is not considered to be a high enough frequency for this treatment approach. 10 minutes per session is not considered to be a long enough duration for each session.

133.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following is the BEST information for the physical therapist to provide the patient regarding the role of a physical therapist in their care?

  • A physical therapist examines patients, develops a plan of care, and administers or supervises treatment

  • A physical therapist provides treatment under the direct supervision of a physical therapist

  • A physical therapist functions only with continuous on-site supervision by another physical therapist or physical therapist assistant

  • A physical therapist works under the supervision of a clinical instructor

Correct answer: A physical therapist examines patients, develops a plan of care, and administers or supervises treatment

The roles and responsibilities of healthcare professionals are designated according to the degree, license, and/or level of training achieved by the individual. Physical therapists are skilled health professionals who examine patients, evaluate data, establish diagnosis and prognosis, build a plan of care, and administer or supervise treatment for their patients.

A physical therapy assistant works under the direct supervision of a physical therapist. A physical therapy aide functions only with continuous on-site supervision by a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant. A physical therapy student works under the supervision of a clinical instructor.

134.

Which of the following would be MOST likely to increase myocardial oxygen demand?

  • Exercise

  • Coughing

  • Inspiration

  • Decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: Exercise

Myocardial oxygen demand (MVO2 represents the energy cost to the myocardium) is clinically measured by multiplying heart rate and systolic blood pressure. As heart rate or systolic blood pressure rises, so does myocardial oxygen demand.

Coughing and inspiration are both known to increase right atrial filling pressure. Decreased blood pressure causes a decrease in myocardial oxygen demand.

135.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be observed during exercise for this patient?

  • Exaggerated heart rate response

  • Increased peak performance

  • Decreasing heart rate

  • No remarkable responses to exercise

Correct answer: Exaggerated heart rate response

Sickle cell anemia is a group of inherited, autosomal-recessive red blood cell disorders characterized by abnormal hemoglobin and red blood cell structure. Physical therapy interventions for sickle cell anemia vary according to the stage and associated symptoms of a patient's condition. For patients with sickle cell anemia, exercise intolerance is common and often presents as an exaggerated heart rate response and limited peak performance.

Decreased peak performance is anticipated with sickle cell anemia, especially in the presence of anemia. An exaggerated heart rate response is expected, not a decreasing heart rate.

136.

You are a physical therapist evaluating a patient in an outpatient clinic. The patient has suffered a tibial fracture and is now in a hard cast and has been ordered for Non-Weight Bearing (NWB) status. He is using axillary crutches as an ambulatory aid.

Which of the following statements is TRUE of axillary crutches?

  • They pose a risk of nerve damage with overuse

  • They provide less stability than some other types of crutches

  • Compared to other types of crutches, they increase the ease of lateral movement

  • They free the patient's hands for use

Correct answer: They pose a risk of nerve damage with overuse

Axillary crutches pose a risk of vascular and/or nerve damage with prolonged use because these ambulatory aids put pressure on the axillary pad. Overuse may injure the axillary artery and/or the radial nerve.

Lofstrand crutches provide slightly less stability than axillary crutches but increased ease of movement. Patients using Lofstrand crutches can also use their hands freely, while the crutches remain secured to their forearms. Lofstrand crutches provide more lateral movement than axillary crutches.

137.

You are a physical therapist treating a 35-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant, presenting with varicose veins.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate intervention for this pathology?

  • Elevation of the extremities

  • Palpation of pressure points in the lower legs and ankles to increase blood flow

  • Education in Kegel exercises to improve blood flow

  • Stretching of tight lower extremity muscles

Correct answer: Elevation of the extremities

It is appropriate for patients with varicose veins to elevate their extremities, avoid crossing their legs, and use elastic support stockings. All of these interventions may help with this condition.

The palpation of pressure points in the lower legs and ankles is not an appropriate treatment for varicose veins. This intervention should not be performed on pregnant patients, as it may have a negative impact on the pregnancy. Patients with pelvic floor pathologies, such as incontinence, may benefit from learning Kegel exercises and stretching the muscles of the lower extremities.

138.

A physical therapist is providing manual secretion removal via percussion to a patient in the hospital. Which of the following patients would be the MOST likely to benefit from this treatment?

  • A 25-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis

  • A 60-year-old patient with COPD

  • A 70-year-old patient with emphysema

  • A 40-year-old patient preparing for a lung transplant

Correct answer: A 25-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis

Percussion is a manual secretion-removal technique that involves a rhythmically applied force using cupped hands over the involved lung segment. Percussion is primarily used for patients with excessive pulmonary secretions, aspiration, and atelectasis due to mucous plugging or obstruction in the airways. 

Patients with COPD and emphysema may benefit from percussion depending on their presentation, although a patient with cystic fibrosis is more likely to benefit from percussion as a treatment. A patient preparing for a lung transplant may or may not benefit from percussion; more information would be required to determine the benefit.

139.

Use the following scenario to answer this question.

Which of the following is MOST likely to also be observed for this patient?

  • Right-sided sensory loss

  • Left-sided sensory loss

  • Bilateral sensory loss

  • Normal sensation

Correct answer: Right-sided sensory loss

Cerebrovascular accident, also called stroke, is a serious neurological injury resulting from compromised blood supply to the brain. Following a stroke, motor and sensory changes are commonly seen on the side contralateral to the lesion. Because this patient has experienced a left-sided stroke, right-sided sensory loss is most likely.

Left-sided sensory loss may occur but would be more expected with a right-sided lesion. Bilateral sensory loss may occur, but more information is required to make this option more likely than right-sided sensory loss. Normal sensation is not expected following a stroke.

140.

A physical therapist is performing an evaluation on a patient with low back pain and left leg pain in an outpatient facility. During the physical exam, the therapist wishes to test the patient's superficial pain sensation. 

Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate for this purpose?

  • Pressing various points along the patient's leg using the end of a paper clip

  • Touching various points along the patient's leg using a cotton ball

  • Touching various points along the patient's leg with test tubes filled with hot or cold water

  • Placing an activated tuning fork against the patient's thigh

Correct answer: Pressing various points along the patient's leg using the end of a paper clip

Superficial sensations include pain, temperature, and touch. The superficial sensation of pain can be assessed with a sharp or dull stimulus using an object such as a paper clip. 

Superficial touch sensation can be tested using a cotton ball. Temperature sensation can be tested using test tubes filled with hot or cold water. An activated tuning fork may be used to test vibration sense or pallesthesia, which is a deep sensation.