NASM-CES Exam Questions

Page 7 of 25

121.

A client is instructed during neuromuscular stretching to isometrically contract against manual resistance before moving into a passive stretch. What is the correct contraction intensity to produce an increased range of motion? 

  • 20%

  • 30%

  • 10%

  • 60%

Correct answer: 20%

According to research, a submaximal isometric contraction intensity of 20% is effective in producing a significantly increased range of motion. 

122.

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal hollowing and abdominal bracing is true? 

  • Abdominal hollowing and bracing are distinct techniques that both work to increase lumbar stability. 

  • Abdominal bracing and hollowing are the same technique and produce similar results.

  • Abdominal bracing is superior in supporting the lumbar spine. 

  • Abdominal hollowing is superior in supporting the lumbar spine. 

Correct answer: Abdominal hollowing and bracing are distinct techniques that both work to increase lumbar stability. 

Abdominal hollowing has been shown to increase local stabilizers while bracing recruits more surface muscles. While these are two distinct techniques, research has shown that they both work to increase lumbopelvic hip complex stabilization and are effective based on the stages and goals of the client's training. 

Neither hollowing nor bracing is superior to the other in supporting the lumbar spine.

123.

A client demonstrates overly pronated feet during the movement assessment. The Corrective Exercise Specialist has determined that their Corrective Exercise Program will target the foot and ankle complex to address this impairment. 

Which of the following activities would you most likely expect during the Lengthen phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum?

  • 30-second static stretch of the TFL

  • 30-second static stretch of the anterior tibialis

  • 15 second isometric contraction of the quadriceps followed by a 30 second static hold

  • 30 second isometric contraction of the posterior tibialis  followed by a 30 second static hold

Correct answer: 30-second static stretch of the TFL

During the lengthen phase, the following muscles should be targeted by a 30-second static hold. For neuromuscular stretching, 7-10 second isometric contraction is followed by a 30-second static hold.

  • Biceps femoris (short head)
  • Gastrocnemius
  • Quadriceps
  • Soleus
  • TFL

124.

A trainer is applying the Corrective Exercise Continuum to a long-term client who demonstrates forward shoulders with his overhead press. The athlete is instructed to stretch his pectoral muscles for two sets of 30 seconds. 

Which of the following phases best describes this scenario?

  • Lengthen

  • Inhibit

  • Activate

  • Integrate

Correct answer: Lengthen 

A pectoral stretch is a form of static stretching. 

The Inhibit phase involves myofascial techniques. The Activate phase involves isolated strengthening. The Integrate phase involves dynamic movement. 

125.

A client performing static stretches experiences temporary increases in range of motion. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between nuclear chain fibers and nuclear bag fibers?

  • Nuclear chain fibers detect changes in muscle length, while nuclear bag fibers respond to the extent and rate of stretch. 

  • Nuclear chain fibers primarily contribute to static stretching gains, while nuclear bag fibers are more involved in dynamic stretching improvements.

  • Nuclear bag fibers are associated with muscle fatigue during static stretching, while nuclear chain fibers are responsible for maintaining muscle tone.

  • Nuclear chain fibers are located in the central region of muscle spindles, while nuclear bag fibers are found within the ligaments, contributing to muscle proprioception during stretching.

Correct answer: Nuclear chain fibers detect changes in muscle length, while nuclear bag fibers respond to the extent and rate of stretch. 

Both nuclear chain fibers and nuclear bag fibers are involved in proprioception and the stretch reflex, and they contribute to overall muscle spindle function. Both types of fibers are involved in muscle proprioception during stretching.

Nuclear bag and nuclear chain fibers are primarily involved in proprioception and the stretch reflex. They are not typically associated with muscle fatigue during static stretching. Both nuclear chain fibers and nuclear bag fibers are found in the muscle spindles, not ligaments. 

126.

Fitness professionals are well-positioned to notice the nuances of movement and posture among their clientele. Which of the following training scenarios best describes static malalignments?

  • A client's pelvis is tilted forward when standing at rest.

  • A client experiences pain during high-intensity interval training (HIIT) workouts.

  • A client's right shoulder drops forward during a weighted squat exercise.

  • A client's knee rotates inward during the stance phase of gait. 

Correct answer: A client's pelvis is tilted forward when standing at rest.

A forward-tilted pelvis when a client is at rest represents a static malalignment. These are deviations from ideal posture that are observed when standing still. 

Pain during HIIT workouts does not specifically describe static malalignments. It may indicate dynamic issues rather than static posture problems. A shoulder drop during a weighted squat exercise and knee rotation during gait are dynamic issues and not representative of static malalignment. 

127.

A client reports that they have been experiencing muscle spasms over the past week. Which of the following options best describes what muscle spasms are?

  • Muscle spasms occur surrounding an injured joint. 

  • Muscle spasms are a normal response to exercise and indicate effective muscle contraction.

  • Muscle spasms are a sign of dehydration.

  • Muscle spasms are a sign of muscle growth and strengthening.

Correct answer: Muscle spasms occur surrounding an injured joint. 

A muscle spasm will occur as a way for the body to protect and immobilize the joint through sustained muscle contraction. 

Muscle spasms are not a normal response to exercise. While exercise can sometimes lead to muscle fatigue or cramps, muscle spasms are often involuntary. While dehydration can contribute to muscle cramps, muscle spasms are involuntary contractions relating to an injured area of the body. While exercise can lead to muscle growth and strengthening, muscle spasms are not indicative of these processes.

128.

A client demonstrates knee varus during the movement assessment portion of their first exercise session with a Corrective Exercise Specialist. Which of the following mobility assessments would be the best choice to perform next?

  • Modified Thomas Test

  • Passive knee extension

  • Ankle dorsiflexion

  • Lumbar extension

Correct answer: Modified Thomas Test 

With knee varus, the suggested mobility assessment are as follows: 

  • Active knee extension
  • Lumbar flexion
  • Modified Thomas Test
  • Passive hip internal rotation 
  • Seated hip internal and external rotation

129.

Which of the following is not a reason why a Corrective Exercise Specialist may choose to perform a loaded squat assessment instead of a bodyweight squat? 

  • Testing lower body strength

  • Assess core stability under external load

  • Observe postural control with different weight placements

  • Help determine what type of loaded squat to program

Correct answer: Testing lower body strength

The goal of the loaded squat assessment is to observe overall neuromuscular control and potential postural impairments with different weight placements. This will help to inform what type of loaded squat to include in their program. 

130.

Which of the following muscles does not insert or originate on the pelvis? 

  • Psoas major

  • Gluteus medius 

  • Adductor magnus

  • Tensor fascia latae

Correct answer: Psoas major

The psoas major originates from the vertebral bodies of the lumbar spine (L1-L5) and inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur. Since this muscle both originates and inserts on structures other than the pelvis, it is the only muscle of the options that does not insert or originate on the pelvis,

The gluteus medius originates on the outer surface of the ilium (the pelvic bone) and inserts on the greater trochanter of the femur. The adductor magnus originates from the pubis of the pelvis and the ischial tuberosity and inserts on the linea aspera of the femur. The tensor fascia latae originates from the iliac crest of the pelvis and inserts into the iliotibial band of the thigh.

131.

A Corrective Exercise Specialist explains the properties of neuromyofascial tissue to a client and how it relates to stretching. Which of the following statements regarding this topic is true? 

  • Nerves can straighten out in myofascial tissue, but not stretch, without inhibiting nerve conduction.

  • Neuromyofascial tissue can stretch a large amount over time.

  • Neuromyofascial tissue poses no risk to the underlying nervous system.

  • Nerves can be elongated over time during stretching.

Correct answer: Nerves can straighten out in myofascial tissue, but not stretch, without inhibiting nerve conduction.  

Nerves follow a curvy path within the myofascial tissues. During stretching, they just straighten out, not stretch. Studies show that even a 6% stretch can inhibit nerve conduction. 

The connective sheath surrounding the nerves, called the perineurium, can elongate 6-20% of its resting length. However, the nerves themselves cannot elongate without damage or additional risk to the nerve itself.

132.

A fitness professional creates a tailored program to enhance the strength of the global muscular system. Which of the following statements regarding the global muscular system is true?

  • The global muscular system includes larger, powerful muscles used for major movements.

  • The global muscular system primarily consists of small, stabilizing muscles.

  • The global muscular system is responsible for fine motor movements and precise control.

  • The global muscular system is mainly involved in regulating heart and lung function.

Correct answer: The global muscular system includes larger, powerful muscles used for major movements.

The global muscular system consists of the larger muscles responsible for major movements of the body, such as walking, running, lifting, and other gross motor activities. Some of the major muscles include the rectus abdominus, obliques, hamstrings, glutes, and latissimus dorsi. 

The global muscular system mainly comprises larger, powerful muscles responsible for major movements, not small stabilizing muscles. Fine motor movements and precise control are typically associated with the use of smaller, intrinsic muscles, not the global muscular system. The regulation of heart and lung function is primarily the role of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, not the global muscular system.

133.

A Corrective Exercise Specialist creates a program that optimizes the force-couple relationship of a client's muscle imbalances. Which of the following options best describes this scenario?

  • The Corrective Exercise Specialist develops a program to improve the coordination of opposing muscle groups

  • The Corrective Exercise Specialist designs exercises to increase the gross muscle strength of the targeted body region

  • The Corrective Exercise Specialist performs special testing to get to the root cause of the client's pain

  • The Corrective Exercise Specialist designs a program to lengthen shortened muscle groups only in order to restore balance

Correct answer: The Corrective Exercise Specialist develops a program to improve the coordination of opposing muscle groups

Corrective Exercise Specialist focuses on optimizing the force-couple relationship, which involves improving the coordination between opposing muscle groups. This typically includes prescribing exercises and movements aimed at correcting imbalances and enhancing functional movement patterns.

A Corrective Exercise Specialist's approach is multifaceted and targeted, it is incorrect to solely focus on strengthening or increasing muscle length. Rather, each client case is unique and requires a personalized program. Special assessments to assess the root cause of pain are outside of the Corrective Exercise Specialist's scope and are only appropriate for licensed medical providers. 

134.

A Corrective Exercise Specialist is performing neuromuscular stretching on a client's right leg to improve hamstring range of motion in supine. Which of the following options best describes step 3 of the four stages of neuromuscular stretching?

  • The Corrective Exercise Specialist slowly takes the leg further into a new end-range

  • The Corrective Exercise Specialist instructs the client to actively contract their hamstring against slight resistance

  • The Corrective Exercise Specialist takes the leg into its end-range motion and holds it for 10 seconds

  • The Corrective Exercise Specialist instructs the client to move their leg in a controlled motion into end-range

Correct answer: The Corrective Exercise Specialist slowly takes the leg further into a new end-range

The neuromuscular stretching process is categorized into four stages: 

  1. Take the target muscle into its end-range ROM and hold for 10 seconds
  2.  Actively contract the target muscle that is being stretched
  3.  Passively relate the target muscle to a new end-range
  4.  Statically hold the new position for 20-30 seconds and repeat for a total of three times

Based on these steps, the correct answer is the option that takes the limb into its new end-range. 

Controlled motions into full range of motion are characteristic of dynamic stretching, not neuromuscular stretching.

135.

A client presents with shoulder weakness and postural impairments of the upper body. The Corrective Exercise Specialist chooses to create a program centered around stabilizing the shoulder girdle. 

Which of the following statements best describes the definition of the shoulder girdle?

  • The shoulder girdle is composed of the scapulae, clavicles, and the upper portion of the sternum. 

  • The shoulder girdle encompasses the entire upper body, from the neck to the lower back.

  • The shoulder girdle pertains only to the muscles surrounding the deltoids and scapula. 

  • The shoulder girdle refers exclusively to the shoulder joint, including the humerus and scapula.

Correct answer: The shoulder girdle is composed of the scapulae, clavicles, and the upper portion of the sternum. 

The shoulder girdle includes the clavicle, scapula, the upper portion of the sternum known as the manubrium, and the muscles surrounding it. 

The shoulder girdle is not limited to the shoulder joint but involves the entire structure formed by the clavicle, scapula, and associated muscles. The entire upper body is too broad of a definition for the shoulder girdle. While the deltoids are part of the shoulder complex, the shoulder girdle involves a broader set of structures, including the clavicle and scapula.

136.

A client undergoes a static posture assessment during their first session. Which of the following options is not a reason why a Corrective Exercise Specialist would perform this portion of the assessment first?

  • Static posture measures isometric muscle strength.

  • Static posture is the reference for the alignment of the body.

  • Static posture is the basis for movement.

  • Static posture helps predict kinetic chain tendencies. 

Correct answer: Static posture measures isometric muscle strength.

Static posture is considered the basis for movement because it requires isometric contraction from many different muscles to maintain muscle tension. It does not, however, measure the capacity for isometric strength. 

Static posture is the basis for dynamic movement, or rather, all functional movement. It will help the fitness professional predict kinetic chain tendencies in the movement assessment. 

137.

A client presents with significant thoracic kyphosis during the static postural assessment. Which of the following would you least likely expect to observe during the overhead squat assessment? 

  • Posterior pelvic tilt 

  • Cervical extension

  • Scapular elevation 

  • Arms fall forward

Correct answer: Posterior pelvic tilt 

In this scenario, we expect thoracic kyphosis to affect the scapular, shoulder, and cervical posture due to its proximity to these kinetic checkpoints. Thoracic kyphosis affects the scapula's ability to stabilize on the rib cage and can increase the likelihood of compensatory movements in the shoulder and neck as a result in an overhead squat position. 

A posterior pelvic tilt is least likely to be observed in thoracic kyphosis. In fact, in most postural impairment patterns, thoracic kyphosis is typically accompanied by anterior pelvic tilt. 

138.

A client performing a weight pull assessment is unable to maintain a neutral position of the wrist. The client demonstrates the wrist resting in slight flexion throughout. Which of the following activities would you most likely expect the client to perform in their Corrective Exercise Program? 

  • Self-myofascial rolling of the wrist flexors

  • Self-myofascial rolling of the wrist extensors

  • Static stretching of the wrist extensors

  • Activation of wrist flexors

Correct answer: Self-myofascial rolling of the wrist flexors

Since the client's wrist is resting in flexion, this tells us that the wrist flexors are likely overactive and shortened and would benefit from inhibition and lengthening. Therefore, self-myofascial rolling of the wrist flexors, not extensors, would be most appropriate.

Static stretching should be performed on the wrist flexors, not extensors. Activation would not include the wrist flexors, as they are already likely overactive and shortened in this scenario. 

139.

A client presents with increased ankle plantarflexion in the static posture alignment screen. Which of the following would you most likely observe in the adjacent structures? 

  • Knee hyperextension

  • Foot pronation

  • Knee valgus

  • Knee flexion

Correct answer: Knee hyperextension

Ankle plantarflexion is typically observed with knee hyperextension in standing static posture. 

Foot pronation is not associated with ankle plantarflexion and is a local, not adjacent structure. Knee valgus is commonly associated with foot overpronation, not plantarflexion.

140.

Aside from the location of the injury, which of the following statements best describes the differences between lateral and medial epicondylitis?

  • Lateral epicondylitis is associated with deceleration of the wrist extensors, while medial epicondylitis is associated with deceleration of the wrist flexors.

  • Lateral epicondylitis is associated with deceleration of the wrist flexors, while medial epicondylitis is associated with deceleration of the wrist extensors.

  • Lateral epicondylitis occurs during tennis only, while medial epicondylitis is observed in many other occupations and sports. 

  • Medial epicondylitis is more common than lateral epicondylitis due to the frequency of gripping motions in daily activity. 

Correct answer: Lateral epicondylitis is associated with deceleration of the wrist extensors, while medial epicondylitis is associated with deceleration of the wrist flexors.

The lateral epicondyle is a common insertion point for the forearm extensors, while the medial epicondyle is the attachment for the forearm flexors. Repetitive deceleration of the wrist extensors during sports like tennis is a common cause of lateral epicondylitis. Similarly, sports such as golf place eccentric stress on the forearm flexors, leading to medial epicondylitis. 

Both medial and lateral epicondylitis are seen outside of sports and can be observed in other occupations such as plumbing, cooking, and construction, where repetitive wrist and shoulder movements are required. 

It is not known if medial epicondylitis occurs more frequently than lateral. Repetitive gripping may be a factor in developing medial epicondylitis; however, it is not a true statement that it is more common than lateral epicondylitis.