NASM-CPT Exam Questions

Correct answer: Disassociation

If a fitness professional encourages a client to focus on the beat of the music during a strenuous cardiovascular bout, they are helping the client practice disassociation, a cognitive-behavioral approach in which an individual focuses on the external environment, such as noticing the scenery or listening to music, to distract their mind from what their body is experiencing.

Correct answer: Establishing a specific deadline

In the framework of SMART goals, which stands for Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound, the element of time plays a crucial role in defining the structure and success of the objective. The time-bound aspect of a SMART goal necessitates the establishment of a specific deadline or date of completion for the goal. 

This temporal component is not merely a suggestion but a definitive part of the goal-setting process that serves multiple purposes, including providing motivation, creating a sense of urgency, and facilitating the measurement of progress.

The utilization of time as a specific date of completion is fundamental in making the goal time-bound. This means setting a clear, unequivocal deadline by which the goal should be achieved. This deadline serves as a critical motivator, encouraging continuous progress and effort by providing a clear target. It also enables both the goal setter and any supporting parties to monitor progress over time, making adjustments as needed to stay on track.

The other answer options are explained as follows:

• Estimating the goal's importance: While understanding a goal's importance is vital for prioritizing efforts, it is not the primary function of the time element in SMART goals. Importance may influence the timeframe set for achieving the goal, but the time component itself is specifically about setting a deadline, not estimating value or importance.
• A measure of the goal's complexity: The complexity of a goal can influence the timeframe needed to achieve it; however, the time aspect of SMART goals is not about measuring complexity. Rather, it is about setting a realistic yet challenging deadline for completion, regardless of the goal's complexity. The planning phase should account for complexity by adjusting the timeframe appropriately.
• Assessing the goal's relevance to long-term aspirations: While the relevance of a goal is indeed a part of the SMART framework, encapsulated in the Relevant criterion, the time aspect does not directly assess this relevance. Instead, the timeframe should ensure the goal contributes effectively to long-term aspirations by being achievable within a specific period. The relevance is more about the goal's alignment with broader objectives or values, whereas the timeframe ensures that the goal fits within a strategic timeline.

The element of time in SMART goals is specifically utilized to set a specific date of completion, making the goal time-bound. This encourages timely action, facilitates progress tracking, and helps ensure the goal complements broader personal or organizational timelines and objectives. While aspects like the goal's importance, complexity, and relevance are crucial to the goal-setting process, the time component's primary purpose is to define when the goal should be accomplished.

Correct answer: Leg press

If a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt, the fitness professional should focus on trying to lengthen the hip flexors and the hip extensors while activating the gluteal muscles. The leg press is a quad-dominant machine and does not allow the gluteal muscles to work to their full potential.

Correct answer: The training plan will likely focus on phases 1, 2, and 5

General performance improvements include endurance, proprioception, and power, with maximal hypertrophy and strength being optional and dependent on the client's goals. Therefore, the training plan should involve four weeks each of phase 1 and 2 training with accessory cardiorespiratory training before moving on to a focus on phase 5. 

It is important that phases 1 and 2 be utilized during the phase 5 weeks to prevent injury and improve recovery. This is called undulating periodization.

Correct answer: Onset of dyspnea earlier than usual

Chronic lung disease is divided into two basic categories, obstructive and restrictive:

• Chronic obstructive lung disease results in normal lung tissue with restricted airflow.
• Restrictive lung disease results in fibrotic, dysfunctional lung tissue.

The constraints during exercise are similar in both of these types of lung diseases. A physiologic consideration for individuals with lung disease is that upper extremity exercise may result in earlier onset of dyspnea (shortness of breath) and fatigue. 

Lower extremity cardio and resistance training exercises are more tolerated, and sufficient rest intervals should be planned into the workout.

Correct answer: Latissimus dorsi

A lower back arch during an overhead squat assessment can be caused by muscle imbalances in the lower body, resulting in overactive and underactive muscle groups. 

Overactive muscles such as the latissimus dorsi, hip flexor complex, and erector spinae can cause the lower back to arch. 

It is important to note that overactive and underactive muscle groups can affect multiple areas of the body in many different ways.

Correct answer: Tibialis anterior

The global stabilization system is comprised of muscles that attach from the pelvis to the spine. These muscles provide stability by transporting stress from a load between the upper and lower extremities. During functional movements, these muscles contribute to stabilization.

The global stabilization system includes the psoas major, external obliques, portions of the internal oblique, rectus abdominis, gluteus medius, latissimus dorsi, and adductor complex.

Correct answer: Chemical energy

Chemical energy describes the energy found in a molecule that has not yet been released in carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. For this chemical energy to become a usable form of energy (ATP), metabolism takes place. 

The body's metabolism is the sum of all the chemical reactions that are required for life, and it is responsible for acquiring, transporting, using, and disposing of nutrients.

Correct answer: It means the goal is challenging but reasonably accessible

SMART goals should be just challenging enough without being extreme to be attainable. Goals that the client will reach without much effort are not challenging enough, and goals that are humanly possible but very challenging are more likely to leave the client frustrated after hard work.

Correct answer: Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

NonExercise Activity Thermogenesis (NEAT) refers to the energy expended during activities that are not structured exercise but still contribute to daily energy expenditure. This includes activities such as household chores, fidgeting, and walking. NEAT plays a significant role in total daily energy expenditure.

While routine energy utilization suggests the habitual use of energy, it lacks the specificity of NEAT, which refers specifically to nonexercise activities. Routine energy utilization could encompass a broader range of activities beyond just household cleaning.

Daily life calorie burn describes the overall calorie expenditure throughout the day but does not specifically capture the energy expenditure associated with household cleaning activities. NEAT is a more specific term that focuses on the nonexercise components of daily energy expenditure.

Ambient calorie expenditure implies the energy expenditure occurring in the background or as a result of environmental factors. While household cleaning activities may contribute to ambient calorie expenditure, NEAT specifically addresses the energy expended during such activities.

By understanding and using the term nonexercise activity thermogenesis, professionals can accurately describe and account for the calorie expenditure associated with everyday activities like household cleaning, contributing to a more comprehensive understanding of energy balance and metabolism.

Correct answer: Pistol squats

Unilateral exercises predominantly use one limb, such as lunges and pistol squats.

Bilateral exercises (e.g., deadlifts, barbell shoulder presses, and bench presses) require the use of both sides of the body.

Correct answer: Scoliotic distortion syndrome

Scoliosis is a serious orthopedic issue that should be documented and addressed, but it is not one of the distortion syndromes described in the literature. 

Distortion patterns typically refer to predictable patterns of muscle imbalances and postural misalignments that can lead to dysfunction and pain. 

Scoliosis, while it involves a lateral curvature of the spine and can be associated with muscular imbalances, is generally classified as a specific medical condition rather than a basic distortion pattern used in corrective exercise or fitness training contexts.

Kyphotic-lordotic posture is indeed identified as a basic distortion pattern. It describes a common postural misalignment, where there is an excessive curvature in the thoracic spine (kyphosis) and an increased arch in the lumbar spine (lordosis). This pattern is associated with a specific set of muscular imbalances—typically, tightness in the hip flexors and lower back and weakness in the abdominal and gluteal muscles. Identifying and addressing this pattern is common in postural assessments and corrective exercise programs.

Hyperlordosis, like kyphotic-lordotic posture, is a well-recognized basic distortion pattern. It specifically refers to an excessive inward curve of the lower back, often caused by muscle imbalances such as tight hip flexors and lumbar extensors coupled with weak abdominal muscles. This pattern is frequently assessed in fitness and rehabilitation settings because it can lead to discomfort and increased risk of injury, particularly in the lower back.

Pes planus distortion syndrome, also known as flat feet, involves the collapse of the medial longitudinal arch of the foot and is another recognized distortion pattern. This condition often correlates with additional kinetic chain issues, such as increased internal rotation of the lower legs and potential knee and hip problems. Corrective strategies often involve strengthening and stabilizing the feet and ankles as well as addressing any compensatory patterns higher up in the kinetic chain.

Correct answer: Their center of gravity will be lower.

The center of gravity refers to the assumed midpoint of one's mass and body. When a person spreads their legs, they effectively lower their height and their center of gravity.

Correct answer: Bridge with feet in a suspension trainer

As a fitness professional, it is important to recognize when an exercise is either too easy or too difficult for a client. A prepared fitness professional will not only recognize these signs but also have appropriate regression (decrease in difficulty) or progression (increase in difficulty) options, based on the client's needs.

If an individual no longer feels a challenge while performing a single-leg floor bridge exercise, an appropriate progression would be to try bridging with feet in a suspension trainer. With a suspension trainer, the individual is in a proprioceptively enriched, unstable environment that can increase muscle activation to a greater degree.

Correct answer: Bone mass is decreased

While maximal oxygen uptake and pulse irregularity will require careful planning in the first phases of training, the most important consideration involves the decrease of bone mass. 

Bone mass will continue to decrease in all senior clients and should be anticipated with increased strength training. 

Body fat percent is increased in all senior clients but should be treated with an approach similar to that with younger adult clients.

Correct answer: Cortisol

Cortisol, often referred to as the stress hormone, is typically elevated in the bloodstream as a result of overtraining. This hormone is produced by the adrenal cortex and plays a crucial role in various body functions, including metabolism regulation and the immune response. Cortisol levels increase in response to physical and mental stress, and prolonged high intensity or high volume training without adequate recovery can lead to sustained elevated cortisol levels. This chronic elevation can have detrimental effects, such as impaired immune function, increased muscle breakdown, and disrupted sleep, all common symptoms of overtraining syndrome.

Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that primarily regulates glucose levels in the blood. It facilitates the uptake of glucose into cells from the bloodstream, used for energy or stored as fat. While exercise can affect insulin sensitivity and its action, insulin is not typically elevated due to overtraining. Insulin levels are more directly influenced by food intake and metabolic health rather than the stress response associated with overtraining.

Leptin is a hormone associated with regulating energy balance by inhibiting hunger, which in turn helps to regulate body weight. It is produced by fat cells and signals the brain to reduce appetite. Unlike cortisol, leptin levels are not directly linked to stress or overtraining. In fact, intense training and reduced body fat (often seen in highly active individuals) might lead to lower leptin levels, not higher, which would contradict the premise of being a marker for overtraining.

Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is a hormone and neurotransmitter involved in the body's acute stress response. It is rapidly released in response to short-term stressors, preparing the body for a fight or flight reaction. While epinephrine levels can spike during intense physical activities, they typically return to baseline fairly quickly and do not remain elevated as a chronic response to overtraining like cortisol. Epinephrine spikes are transient and not a reliable indicator of overtraining, which involves prolonged physiological stress and recovery imbalance.

While insulin, leptin, and epinephrine play significant roles in various physiological processes, they do not typically exhibit sustained elevated levels in response to overtraining as cortisol does. Cortisol’s role as a stress indicator makes it particularly relevant in scenarios of overtraining, where the body is under chronic physical stress without adequate recovery.

Correct answer: Enjoyment 

When programming for all exercise training, including cardiorespiratory fitness, the FITTE principle should be applied. FITTE stands for Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, and Enjoyment.

Enjoyment refers to the amount of pleasure derived from engaging in a specific exercise or activity. Exercise adherence rates decline significantly when a specific mode of exercise is selected for a client before considering their personality type, previous experience, and other interests. A client is much more apt to continue with a program that is fun and challenging and includes a supportive environment than one that is dull and boring.

Correct answer: Food preparation methods

The NASM scope of practice states a certified personal trainer (CPT) can design safe, effective exercise and conditioning programs, provide guidance to help clients achieve their personal goals, and make nutritional recommendations. Fitness professionals should be familiar with general nutrition information, but it is outside their scope of practice to give macro or calorie goals or to discuss specific diets with clients.

Also, a CPT is not allowed to diagnose or treat areas of pain, as that falls outside their scope of practice. If a client does exhibit pain in a certain area, it is the CPT's duty to refer them to a doctor.

Correct answer: Action and maintenance

The stages of change model states that individuals progress through a series of behavior change stages and that movement through these stages is not linear but instead is cyclical. This model is made up of five stages: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.

Most fitness centers are designed for people in the action and maintenance stages. These people are psychologically prepared to sign up to take a class or work with a personal trainer.

Correct answer: The professional may control the schedule

Commercial fitness facilities provide an environment where existing club members can interact with the fitness professional. Typically, the trainer will have a sales quota to maintain and will be provided with training, updated equipment, and an incentivizing pay rate scale. However, they are usually required to be present at the gym for specific hours each week and are not in control of their work schedule.