NASM-CPT Exam Questions

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61.

To support the stretch of the psoas in an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, which way should the hips be tilted?

  • Posteriorly

  • Anteriorly

  • Laterally

  • Neutrally

Correct answer: Posteriorly 

A common mistake with the active kneeling hip flexor stretch is not having the hips posteriorly tilted to stretch the psoas. If the hips dip forward, the hip flexors remain shortened. However, if the goal is to target the rectus femoris, then the hips should remain in a neutral position.

62.

Which of the following is an acute variable?

  • Exercise selection

  • Exercise location

  • Group exercise vs. individual training

  • A substitute trainer

Correct answer: Exercise selection

The trainer may alter the exercises for each phase of training based on the client's preferences and goals. Location, the presence of one or more clients, or a substitute trainer do not necessarily impact training intensity, etc. if the program is well-designed.

63.

How many calories does an individual following a very low calorie diet (VLCD) typically consume?

  • 800 calories

  • 900 calories

  • 1,200 calories

  • 1,000 calories

Correct answer: 800 calories

A very low calorie diet (VLCD) should be medically supervised and typically uses commercially prepared formulas for weight loss in obese patients. People on a VLCD consume about 800 calories per day or fewer. Fitness professionals should discourage clients from eating less than 1,200 calories per day and instead promote healthy eating, nutrition awareness, and increased activity.

64.

All of the following are low-impact forms of cardiorespiratory exercise, except:

  • Stair climbing

  • Swimming

  • Water aerobics

  • Cycling

Correct answer: Stair climbing

For individuals who are overweight or obese, high impact, weight-bearing cardiorespiratory exercise may cause excessive soreness and pain. Therefore, low-impact forms of cardiorespiratory exercise such as cycling, water aerobics, and swimming are better options and can help maintain an individual's adherence to an exercise plan.

65.

Which of the following most accurately defines a SMART goal?

  • A goal that is specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely

  • A goal that is simple, manageable, achievable, realistic, and trackable

  • A goal that is systematic, meaningful, assignable, resolute, and time-sensitive

  • A goal that is strategic, manageable, aligned, reasonable, and timed

Correct answer: A goal that is specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely

A goal that is specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely encapsulates all the essential elements of the SMART framework, making it the correct choice. Each component is critical to creating objectives that are practical and achievable while being sufficiently challenging to drive personal or professional growth.

The other answer options do not accurately define a SMART goal:

  • A goal that is simple, manageable, achievable, realistic, and trackable: This description misinterprets several aspects of the SMART criteria. While simplicity and manageability are helpful qualities, they are not part of the original SMART acronym. Simple doesn’t necessarily equate to specific, and manageable does not address the goal's relevance or direct alignment with broader objectives. Hence, this definition lacks the focus on goal specificity and relevance, essential components of the SMART criteria.
  • A goal that is systematic, meaningful, assignable, resolute, and time-sensitive: This set replaces several key components with less effective alternatives. While systematic and assignable suggest organization and delegation, they do not capture the essence of being specific or attainable. Resolute implies determination but does not ensure the goal is achievable or relevant. Although some elements seem aligned, they do not provide the clear, direct guidance necessary as laid out in the SMART framework.
  • A goal that is strategic, manageable, aligned, reasonable, and timed: Although this description includes aspects that seem appropriate, such as being strategic and aligned, it still misses critical features like measurability and attainability. Strategic aligns with the broader objectives but does not inherently ensure the goal is specific. Manageable and reasonable are akin to attainable but lack the precision of measurability, crucial for tracking progress effectively.

Understanding the exact meaning and implications of each component in the SMART criteria is key to setting goals that are not only clear and sensible but also motivating and structured to encourage success. Each aspect of the acronym serves a specific purpose in goal setting, ensuring a balanced and robust approach to achieving desired outcomes.

66.

How should a trainer assist someone in the preparation stage?

  • Help them clarify their fitness goals and expectations

  • Educate them on the importance of exercise

  • Provide them with changes to their exercise routine

  • Develop action steps to overcome time or intensity barriers

Correct answer: Help them clarify their fitness goals and expectations

The preparation stage is when many decisions are made by both the client and the trainer. It is important to manage the client's expectations by establishing realistic goals and developing a training plan that fits those goals. At this point, the client is already aware of the importance of exercise but has not yet trained. Therefore, they will not need a training plan refresh.

67.

Why does rest between sets improve performance and recovery?

  • Adenosine triphosphate and phosphocreatine are reduced during training, and rest allows replenishment

  • Adenine and cytosine are reduced during training, and rest allows replenishment

  • Glutamine and tyrosine are reduced during training, and rest allows replenishment

  • Methionine and adenosine triphosphate are reduced during training, and rest allows replenishment

Correct answer: Adenosine triphosphate and phosphocreatine are reduced during training, and rest allows replenishment

During dynamic and isometric training, energy supplies to make adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and phosphocreatine are reduced. Rest allows energy supplies to return to adequate for ATP and phosphocreatine production.

Supplies to make new adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and phosphocreatine are rapidly replaced during rest periods, and it only takes 60 seconds to replenish these energy sources by about 85%.

  • Half of the ATP stores can be replenished after 20 to 30 seconds.
  • After 40 seconds, the body will replenish about 75% of ATP stores.
  • Finally, after three minutes, 100% of the ATP stores will be replaced.

68.

Which skills should new fitness professionals focus on developing?

  • People skills

  • Assessment skills

  • Program design skills

  • Basic movement skills

Correct answer: People skills

Many new fitness professionals have limited experience with presentation, rapport, coaching, and other people skills. It is important that new professionals focus on building these skills first to have a successful career. They can do this while working at a fitness facility in a position other than trainer and by observing more experienced trainers interact with clients.

Program design and assessment skills are learned during certification training, and basic movement skills should be continuously developed with exercise.

69.

Which of the following conditions is classified as an acute illness?

  • Respiratory infection

  • COPD

  • Asthma

  • Hypertension

Correct answer: Respiratory infection

Acute illnesses are characterized by their sudden onset and typically brief duration. They usually resolve either with or without treatment within a relatively short period. Examples of acute illnesses include respiratory infections like the common cold or influenza, which typically manifest rapidly with symptoms that are intense but short-lived, resolving within a few weeks.

A respiratory infection is an example of an acute illness because it typically emerges quickly and has a limited course with symptoms that resolve within days to weeks. These infections can be caused by various viruses or bacteria and while they may cause significant discomfort during their active phase, they do not usually persist long-term.

COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease):

  • COPD is not an acute illness but rather a chronic disease. It develops slowly over many years and is primarily characterized by a long-term obstruction of lung airflow that interferes with normal breathing. Unlike acute conditions, COPD's symptoms are persistent and progressively worsen over time without an acute phase of rapid resolution.

Asthma:

  • Asthma is another chronic condition incorrectly listed as acute. While asthma attacks can occur suddenly and may seem acute in nature, the disease itself is chronic. Asthma involves recurring episodes of airway obstruction and inflammation, typically requiring long-term management and control. Symptoms can flare up in response to triggers but the underlying condition persists indefinitely.

Hypertension (High Blood Pressure):

  • Hypertension, like the other incorrect answers, is a chronic condition. It involves consistently elevated blood pressure over a prolonged period. Hypertension often develops over many years and requires ongoing management. It does not resolve spontaneously or quickly and thus does not fit the classification of an acute illness.

The distinguishing factor for an acute illness like a respiratory infection is its temporary nature and quick resolution, contrasting sharply with the long-term and enduring nature of chronic diseases such as COPD, asthma, and hypertension.

70.

What percentage of an individual's total calorie count should come from carbohydrates?

  • 45-65% of their total calories

  • 10-35% of their total calories

  • 25-55% of their total calories

  • 30-65% of their total calories

Correct answer: 45-65% of their total calories

It is recommended that adults get 45-65% of their total calories from carbohydrates, primarily from complex carbohydrates such as starches and fiber as well as whole grains. However, every individual is different, and their carbohydrate consumption will vary depending on their activity level. For example, the more active an individual is, the more carbohydrates they should consume.

71.

Identify the exercise that primarily focuses on balance and stabilization from the following options:

  • Single-leg hip rotation

  • Lunge to balance

  • Single-leg box hop-down

  • Single-leg squat

Correct answer: Single-leg hip rotation

Balance and stabilization exercises are crucial components of functional training programs, designed to improve the body's ability to control and maintain position through various movements. These exercises target the neuromuscular system, enhancing coordination, stability, and proprioception. 

Among the options provided, the single-leg hip rotation is identified as an exercise that primarily focuses on balance and stabilization.

The single-leg hip rotation exercise is a dynamic movement that challenges the stabilizer muscles throughout the lower body, core, and even the upper body to some extent. Performing this exercise requires an individual to balance on one leg while rotating the hip outward and then inward. This not only demands a significant amount of balance but also engages the core muscles and the stabilizers around the hip and ankle joints. The dynamic nature of the hip rotation adds a complex stability challenge, making it an effective exercise for enhancing balance and stabilization.

The other answer options are explained as follows:

  • Lunge to balance: This exercise involves stepping into a lunge position and then pushing back to a standing position on one leg. While it certainly incorporates elements of balance and stabilization, especially as the practitioner returns to a single-leg stance, it also places a strong emphasis on strength development in the lower body. The lunge movement engages the glutes, quads, and hamstrings extensively.
  • Single-leg box hop-down: This plyometric exercise requires jumping off a box and landing on one leg. It's designed to improve power, coordination, and balance. The act of landing and stabilizing the body on a single leg does require balance and stabilization; however, the primary focus is on developing lower-body power and the ability to absorb impact forces effectively.
  • Single-leg squat: Also known as a pistol squat, this exercise demands a high degree of balance, stability, and strength. The practitioner must lower into a deep squat on one leg and then return to a standing position. While it is indeed a challenging balance and stabilization exercise, its intensity and the strength requirement to perform it correctly place it in a category that also heavily emphasizes muscular endurance and strength, particularly in the quadriceps, glutes, and hamstrings.

While all the provided options incorporate elements of balance and stabilization to varying degrees, the single-leg hip rotation exercise is specifically designed to focus on these aspects, making it the correct choice for an exercise that primarily enhances balance and stabilization. The dynamic nature of rotating the hip while maintaining balance on one leg offers a unique challenge to the body's stabilizing muscles, promoting improved proprioception and neuromuscular coordination.

72.

Which of the following is a process goal?

  • "I will lift weights every Monday, Wednesday, and Friday for the next three weeks."

  • "I will deadlift 180 pounds by the end of the month."

  • "I will place in the top 10 in the marathon next year."

  • "I will perform 10 pull-ups in a single set."

Correct answer: "I will lift weights every Monday, Wednesday, and Friday for the next three weeks."

Process goals provide a means to reach a specific outcome. All the other goals listed are outcome goals, which refer to the end result of a process.

73.

Sensorimotor integration involves all of the following systems, except:

  • Cardiorespiratory system

  • Muscular system

  • Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

  • Central nervous system (CNS)

Correct answer: Cardiorespiratory system

Sensorimotor integration is the gathering and interpreting of information to create movement. The muscular system, peripheral nervous system (PNS), and central nervous system (CNS) all provide and process that information, which results in the ability of the individual to move effectively and correctly.

74.

Which of the following is recognized as a self-myofascial release technique?

  • Foam rolling

  • Active stretching

  • Deep tissue massage

  • Cupping therapy

Correct answer: Foam rolling

Foam rolling is a recognized Self-Myofascial Release (SMR) technique that individuals can perform on their own to relieve muscle tightness, soreness, and inflammation, and to increase joint range of motion. This technique involves using a foam roller to apply pressure to specific points on the body, effectively helping to break up fascial adhesions and scar tissue in muscles, thereby promoting blood flow and faster recovery of muscular function.

Active stretching, although beneficial for increasing flexibility and muscle control, does not qualify as a self-myofascial release technique. Active stretching involves the person using their own muscle force to stretch, which primarily targets muscle elongation and strengthening rather than the fascia. Unlike SMR techniques, it does not involve applying pressure to the muscle and fascia to relieve tension or break up knots.

Deep tissue massage is performed by a trained therapist using sustained pressure using slow, deep strokes to target the inner layers of your muscles and connective tissues. This helps in breaking up scar tissue that forms following an injury and reduces tension in muscle and tissue. However, it is not a self-administered technique and therefore does not fit the definition of self-myofascial release, as it requires another person to apply the technique.

Cupping therapy involves a therapist putting special cups on your skin for a few minutes to create suction, which is believed to help with pain, inflammation, blood flow, relaxation, and well-being and as a type of deep-tissue massage. Like deep tissue massage, cupping is not self-administered and thus does not meet the criteria for self-myofascial release. It focuses more on the surface of the skin and the layers just beneath rather than directly on the muscle fascia.

Foam rolling stands out as a self-myofascial release technique because it is a method that individuals can perform independently to directly manipulate and improve the health of their muscles and fascia, unlike the other methods listed, which either require a practitioner or do not target the fascia directly.

75.

Your client, who has upper crossed syndrome, is using the elliptical trainer. Which of the following postural deviations should you watch for?

  • Protruding head

  • Arched lower back

  • Anterior pelvic tilt

  • Retracted shoulder blades

Correct answer: Protruding head

For a client who has upper crossed syndrome (rounded shoulders and/or forward head posture), it is important to be aware of the postural deviations that can occur during exercise. During the use of an elliptical trainer, it is common for individuals with upper crossed syndrome to round their shoulders and jut their head forward.

76.

If emotions such as anxiety or depression become debilitating for a client, what should the fitness professional do?

  • Refer them to a licensed psychologist or healthcare professional, and continue to train them

  • Offer to talk through their problems in detail during workout sessions

  • Call their emergency contact to alert them of what is going on

  • Suggest the client take a break from all physical activity until they feel better

Correct answer: Refer them to a licensed psychologist or healthcare professional, and continue to train them

When a fitness professional encounters a client whose emotional conditions like anxiety or depression become debilitating, the most appropriate and responsible action is to refer them to a licensed psychologist or another qualified healthcare professional. This ensures that the client receives specialized care tailored to their mental health needs. At the same time, the fitness professional can continue to support the client's physical health goals unless advised otherwise by medical professionals, which can be beneficial as part of an overall wellness plan.

Mental health issues such as debilitating anxiety or depression require professional intervention. A licensed psychologist or healthcare professional has the expertise to diagnose and treat these conditions effectively. Fitness professionals are not trained to handle severe psychological disorders and thus should refer clients to appropriate mental health services.

Continuing the training sessions may be advisable as physical exercise can be beneficial for mental health, improving mood and reducing symptoms of depression and anxiety. However, any physical activity should be aligned with the advice from the client's healthcare provider, ensuring it is safe and appropriate given their mental health condition.

The other answer options are incorrect:

  • Offer to talk through their problems in detail during workout sessions: While it may seem helpful, fitness professionals are not trained mental health counselors. Discussing in-depth emotional issues during training sessions can be inappropriate and potentially harmful, as the trainer may not be equipped to provide the correct psychological support or could inadvertently worsen the client's condition.
  • Call their emergency contact to alert them of what is going on: Unless the client is in immediate danger to themselves or others, it's generally not appropriate for a fitness professional to contact emergency connections without the client’s explicit consent. Such actions could breach client confidentiality and trust unless previously agreed upon in an emergency plan.
  • Suggest the client take a break from all physical activity until they feel better: Advising a client to stop all physical activity might not be beneficial and could actually exacerbate symptoms of depression and anxiety. Regular physical activity is widely recognized to help improve mood and mental well-being. The decision to halt physical activity should be made by a healthcare professional who understands the client’s overall health and mental condition.

The fitness professional's role is to support the client’s physical health while recognizing the limits of their professional capabilities. Referring a client to a mental health expert ensures they receive the appropriate care. Continuing their physical training can aid their overall well-being, provided it is done under suitable guidance.

77.

What percentage of the population actually engages in the recommended 30 minutes of low to moderate physical activity on most days?

  • Less than 25%

  • Less than 10%

  • Less than 35%

  • Less than 15%

Correct answer: Less than 25%

Approximately 75% of American adults do not meet this recommended minimum requirement for physical activity.

78.

Which of the following is a common form mistake during a static upper trapezius/scalenes stretch?

  • Elevating the shoulder

  • Dropping the head forward 

  • Attempting to look over the shoulder and not toward the sky

  • Not laterally flexing to tension

Correct answer: Elevating the shoulder

When performing the static upper trapezius/scalenes stretch, if the shoulder elevates, then the muscle is shortening instead of lengthening. The fitness professional should cue the client to only take the stretch to the first point of tension, which should help lessen the chance of the shoulder elevating.

79.

How does SAQ training support senior clients?

  • SAQ training prevents reductions in bone density and coordination

  • SAQ training improves metabolic rate

  • SAQ training eliminates the possibility of osteopenia

  • SAQ training is necessary for healthy aging

Correct answer: SAQ training prevents reductions in bone density and coordination

SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) training supports bone density retention and improves coordination, both of which are vital to healthy aging and injury prevention. While SAQ training does improve metabolic rate, that is not the main focus of training for seniors. SAQ training cannot guarantee the prevention of osteopenia, nor is it necessary for healthy aging.

80.

Which of the following examples demonstrates a client acting with autonomy?

  • A client being encouraged to perform cardio on a treadmill rather than a bike because they don't like using the bike

  • A client being encouraged to perform bench presses, even though they don't like the exercise

  • A client who prefers exercising legs performing bicep curls

  • A client who wants to build muscular strength being encouraged to perform 15 reps per exercise

Correct answer: A client being encouraged to perform cardio on a treadmill rather than a bike because they don't like using the bike

Autonomy is defined as "acting in accordance with how one wants to behave." For exercise specifically, this means that the client is able to perform the types and modes of exercise they want, but they are still encouraged to perform all types of exercise that are good for their health. If a client doesn't like the bike but does like the treadmill, they are still meeting their cardio exercise requirements, and their autonomy is being preserved.