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NBSTSA CSFA Exam Questions
Page 2 of 25
21.
What should be the immediate course of action if a diagnostic imaging machine displays an error code during a procedure?
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Refer to the machine's user manual for troubleshooting steps
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Ignore the error code and continue using the machine
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Turn off the machine and wait for maintenance to arrive
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Switch to an alternative diagnostic method without reporting the issue
Correct answer: Refer to the machine's user manual for troubleshooting steps
If a diagnostic imaging machine displays an error code during a procedure, the immediate course of action should be to refer to the machine's user manual for troubleshooting steps. The manual provides specific instructions for addressing the error, which can help resolve the issue quickly and safely. This approach minimizes disruption to the procedure and ensures the machine operates correctly.
Ignoring the error code and continuing to use the machine is unsafe and can lead to inaccurate results or further damage. Turning off the machine and waiting for maintenance can cause significant delays and may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved with troubleshooting. Switching to an alternative diagnostic method without reporting the issue does not address the problem and may result in recurring errors.
22.
A patient with diabetes mellitus has impaired glucose uptake in cells. Which hormone is deficient or resistant in this condition?
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Insulin
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Glucagon
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Cortisol
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Adrenaline
Correct answer: Insulin
In diabetes mellitus, insulin is the hormone that is either deficient or resistant. Insulin's primary function is to facilitate the uptake of glucose into cells, thereby lowering blood glucose levels. When insulin production is insufficient, as in Type 1 diabetes, or when cells become resistant to its action, as in Type 2 diabetes, glucose uptake is impaired, leading to hyperglycemia.
Glucagon, cortisol, and adrenaline affect blood glucose levels but do so through different mechanisms. Glucagon promotes the release of glucose from liver stores, cortisol increases glucose production via gluconeogenesis, and adrenaline stimulates glycogen breakdown. None of these hormones are involved in the facilitation of glucose uptake into cells, which is the main influencer in diabetes mellitus.
23.
In a patient undergoing orthopedic surgery, what type of drain is best for minimizing dead space and preventing hematoma formation?
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Hemovac drain
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Penrose drain
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Nasogastric tube
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T-tube drain
Correct answer: Hemovac drain
For orthopedic surgeries, the Hemovac drain is the best choice to minimize dead space and prevent hematoma formation. Its vacuum mechanism efficiently removes fluids and blood, reducing the risk of postoperative complications and promoting better healing.
The Penrose drain is an open system and fails to effectively manage dead space and hematoma risks. The nasogastric tube is not relevant in this context, as it serves to provide access to the gastrointestinal tract, not to prevent hematoma formation. The T-tube drain is used to facilitate biliary drainage, making it unsuitable for orthopedic surgical use.
24.
A patient presents for surgery after suffering a gunshot wound to the abdomen with bowel perforation and fecal contamination. How should this surgical wound be classified?
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Dirty or infected
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Clean
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Clean-contaminated
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Contaminated
Correct answer: Dirty or infected
A gunshot wound to the abdomen with bowel perforation and fecal contamination is classified as dirty or infected. This classification reflects the presence of significant contamination from fecal matter and the high risk of infection due to the introduction of bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract into the abdominal cavity.
Clean wounds involve procedures with no contamination or infection.
Clean-contaminated wounds involve controlled entry into areas with normal flora, whereas this wound involves uncontrolled entry and significant fecal contamination.
Contaminated wounds involve breaks in technique or exposure to contaminants but without established infection, while fecal contamination and bowel perforation indicate a dirty or infected wound.
25.
In a shoulder fracture involving the proximal humerus, which muscle is most likely to be impacted, potentially affecting arm abduction?
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Deltoid
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Triceps brachii
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Brachialis
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Serratus anterior
Correct answer: Deltoid
In cases of shoulder fractures involving the proximal humerus, the deltoid muscle is most likely to be affected due to its anatomical location and function. The deltoid muscle originates from the clavicle and scapula and inserts onto the humerus, making it susceptible to injury or impairment when the proximal humerus is fractured.
The triceps brachii focuses on elbow extension, not shoulder movement, and is not as likely to be impacted by a fracture of the proximal humerus.
The brachialis is involved in elbow flexion, which is unrelated to shoulder abduction.
The serratus anterior plays a role in scapular movement rather than direct arm abduction.
26.
During an operation, a piece of equipment that has been sterilized is accidentally dropped on the floor. What should be the next step?
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Replace it with a sterile backup
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Wipe the equipment with a sterile cloth and continue using it
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Re-sterilize the equipment using a quick chemical method
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Inspect the equipment for visible contamination before deciding how to proceed
Correct answer: Replace it with a sterile backup
Replacing it with a sterile backup ensures the equipment used remains sterile, preventing any risk of contamination during the procedure. This method is the most reliable and efficient way to maintain the necessary sterile environment in the operating room.
Wiping the equipment with a sterile cloth does not effectively re-sterilize it and poses a risk of contamination. Re-sterilizing the equipment using a quick chemical method may not be as effective or practical during surgery. Inspecting the equipment for visible contamination does not guarantee sterility and is insufficient for ensuring patient safety.
27.
In a minimally invasive laparoscopic procedure, how does the surgical team ensure optimal visualization of the surgical field?
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Maintaining adequate insufflation pressure
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Using a large retractor
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Continuously irrigating the surgical site
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Applying external manual pressure
Correct answer: Maintaining adequate insufflation pressure
Maintaining adequate insufflation pressure is vital in minimally invasive laparoscopic procedures to ensure optimal visualization by expanding the abdominal cavity and creating the necessary space for clear sightlines.
Using a large retractor is counterproductive in minimally invasive surgeries and can hinder visualization. Continuous irrigation might obscure the field with excess fluid. External manual pressure can distort the surgical site and impede clear visualization.
28.
During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon asks you to assist in securing a bleeding vessel. Which of the following steps should you take?
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Use a clip applier to clamp and secure the vessel
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Apply direct pressure with a gauze pad
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Use an ultrasonic scalpel to coagulate the vessel
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Irrigate the area with saline to clear the field
Correct answer: Use a clip applier to clamp and secure the vessel
Out of these options, the best approach during laparoscopic surgery for controlling a bleeding vessel is to use a clip applier to clamp and secure the vessel. This method is effective, minimally invasive, and ensures the bleeding is stopped efficiently with minimal risk to surrounding tissues.
Applying direct pressure with a gauze pad is impractical in laparoscopic settings. Using an ultrasonic scalpel is not suitable for this specific purpose, as it is designed for cutting and coagulation rather than vessel clamping. Irrigating the area with saline helps clear the field but does not address the bleeding directly.
29.
During a mitral valve replacement, the surgeon accidentally injures a structure, leading to hoarseness. Which structure is likely affected?
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Recurrent laryngeal nerve
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Phrenic nerve
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Vagus nerve
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Glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve
The recurrent laryngeal nerve is the structure most likely affected if a patient develops hoarseness following a mitral valve replacement. This nerve innervates the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, which are essential for voice production. Damage to this nerve can result in hoarseness or even complete vocal cord paralysis, which is a known complication of cardiac surgeries given the proximity of this nerve to the heart.
The phrenic nerve is important for diaphragmatic function but does not affect the voice; it would cause issues with breathing rather than hoarseness if injured.
The vagus nerve would cause a wide array of symptoms beyond hoarseness if damaged.
The glossopharyngeal nerve's role in taste and swallowing means its injury would not directly impact the vocal cords or cause hoarseness.
30.
During a surgical procedure, the electrocautery device produces a visible smoke plume. What immediate action should you take to ensure safety in the operating room?
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Use a smoke evacuation system to remove the plume
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Evacuate the operating room
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Recognize that smoke plumes are expected sometimes during surgery
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Immediately irrigate the device to prevent the ignition of a fire
Correct answer: Use a smoke evacuation system to remove the plume
The immediate action when a smoke plume is produced by an electrocautery device is to use a smoke evacuation system. This system effectively removes the smoke from the operating room, reducing the risk of inhalation of harmful particles by the surgical team and ensuring that the surgical field remains clear for optimal visibility.
Evacuating the operating room is unnecessary and disproportionate to the situation, which can be managed with proper smoke evacuation.
Merely acknowledging that smoke plumes are expected does not mitigate the risk or address the need to remove the smoke.
Irrigating the device focuses on preventing further smoke but does not deal with the immediate presence of smoke, making it an inadequate response in this scenario.
31.
Which type of cartilage is most likely to be involved in a meniscal tear of the knee?
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Fibrocartilage
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Hyaline cartilage
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Elastic cartilage
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Articular cartilage
Correct answer: Fibrocartilage
Fibrocartilage is the primary type of cartilage involved in meniscal tears in the knee. The menisci, composed of fibrocartilage, function to absorb shock and distribute load within the knee joint, making them susceptible to tears due to their role in withstanding compressive and shear forces.
Hyaline cartilage provides a smooth surface for joint movement and is not involved in the structure of the menisci.
Elastic cartilage, found in more flexible structures like the ear, does not play a role in the knee joint.
Articular cartilage covers the ends of bones within joints, but the menisci themselves are made of fibrocartilage.
32.
What is the primary function of osteoclasts in bone tissue?
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Bone resorption
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Bone formation
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Calcium storage
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Collagen production
Correct answer: Bone resorption
Osteoclasts play a vital role in bone resorption, breaking down bone tissue to release essential minerals like calcium into the bloodstream. This process is integral to bone remodeling and maintaining mineral balance in the body.
Osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation, laying down the new bone matrix and aiding in its mineralization.
Calcium storage occurs within the bone, but osteoclasts facilitate the release of calcium through bone resorption.
Collagen production, primarily undertaken by fibroblasts, is not a function of osteoclasts, which focus on breaking down the bone matrix.
33.
Which of the following is the most crucial factor to verify before initiating a sterilization cycle?
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All instruments are dry and free from visible debris
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The sterilizer’s display panel is functioning correctly
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The room temperature is within the standard range
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The sterilizer is not loaded to its maximum capacity
Correct answer: All instruments are dry and free from visible debris
Before initiating a sterilization cycle, it is most crucial to verify that all instruments are dry and free from visible debris. This preparation is essential as moisture and organic material can shield microbes from the sterilizing agent, compromising the effectiveness of the sterilization process. Properly cleaned and dried instruments allow for thorough sterilization, ensuring patient safety and preventing infections.
While the sterilizer’s display panel functioning correctly is important, it is secondary to the proper preparation of the instruments. Ensuring the room temperature is within the standard range is less critical compared to the state of the instruments. Although not overloading the sterilizer is important for effective operation, loading it to its maximum capacity (but not beyond) is appropriate.
34.
What is the most effective method for verifying the operational status of a suction machine before use in surgery?
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Performing a vacuum test
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Checking the service label
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Examining the service log to verify correct maintenance protocols were followed
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Counting the number of tubes available
Correct answer: Performing a vacuum test
Performing a vacuum test is the most effective method to verify the operational status of a suction machine before surgery. This test directly measures the machine’s ability to generate the required suction pressure, ensuring it is ready for use.
Checking the service label only provides information on maintenance schedules without confirming current functionality.
Examining the service log confirms maintenance was performed but does not verify real-time operational status.
Counting the number of tubes ensures sufficient supplies but does not address whether the machine itself is functioning correctly.
35.
Which part of the vertebral column is most vulnerable to injury from whiplash?
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Cervical spine
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Thoracic spine
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Lumbar spine
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Sacral spine
Correct answer: Cervical spine
The cervical spine is the part of the vertebral column most vulnerable to injury from whiplash. This is due to its high range of motion and relative instability compared to other spinal regions. Whiplash typically results from a rapid back-and-forth motion of the neck, such as in car accidents, leading to soft tissue damage and potential injury to the vertebrae and intervertebral discs in this area.
The thoracic spine is supported by the rib cage, making it more stable with a limited range of motion and less susceptible to whiplash injuries.
The lumbar spine, designed to bear more weight and supported by strong muscles and ligaments, is also less vulnerable to whiplash, with injuries in this area usually resulting from heavy lifting or twisting.
The sacral spine is the least likely to be injured from whiplash because it is a fused, solid structure with minimal mobility, providing significant protection against the forces involved in such injuries.
36.
Which of the following is the most crucial step to ensure the readiness of surgical instruments before a procedure begins?
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Confirming the integrity of instrument packaging
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Reviewing the patient’s medical history for metal allergies
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Ensuring that the surgery has been scheduled correctly
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Confirming that the surgeon is aware of the instruments needed
Correct answer: Confirming the integrity of instrument packaging
Confirming the integrity of instrument packaging is crucial because it ensures sterility and prevents contamination, which is paramount for patient safety during surgery. This verification guarantees that all instruments are in proper condition for use, reducing the risk of infection.
Reviewing the patient's medical history for metal allergies, scheduling accuracy, and the surgeon's awareness of needed instruments are all important but do not directly relate to the readiness and sterility of the surgical tools. The readiness of instruments focuses on their physical and sterile state, which is ensured by checking the integrity of their packaging.
37.
Which congenital defect involves the incomplete closure of the spinal column?
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Spina bifida
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Anencephaly
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Encephalocele
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Hydrocephalus
Correct answer: Spina bifida
Spina bifida is a congenital condition resulting from the incomplete closure of the spinal column during fetal development. This defect can cause significant neurological impairment depending on the severity and location of the opening, often requiring surgical intervention and long-term management.
Anencephaly, while also a neural tube defect, affects the brain rather than the spinal column.
Encephalocele is a defect in the skull allowing brain tissue to protrude.
Hydrocephalus is related to fluid accumulation in the brain and does not involve the incomplete closure of the spinal column.
38.
During the preoperative briefing, a patient expresses anxiety about the upcoming procedure. What is the most effective way to communicate this concern to the surgical team?
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Inform the lead surgeon about the patient's anxiety
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Document the patient's anxiety in their medical record
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Reassure the patient directly
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Mention the patient's anxiety if an opportunity arises
Correct answer: Inform the lead surgeon about the patient's anxiety
Informing the lead surgeon about the patient's anxiety is the most effective way to ensure that the concern is addressed appropriately. The lead surgeon, as the primary decision-maker, can take necessary steps to adjust the surgical plan and provide reassurance, thereby helping to alleviate the patient's anxiety.
Documenting the patient's anxiety in the medical record is important, but it does not guarantee immediate awareness by all team members. Reassuring the patient directly is helpful for the patient's immediate comfort but does not inform the surgical team. Mentioning the patient's anxiety only if an opportunity arises is too passive and risks the concern not being addressed promptly.
39.
A patient with a history of smoking undergoes surgery. Which wound healing complication is most likely associated with the patient's smoking habit?
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Reduced tissue oxygenation
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Development of a biofilm
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Increased collagen deposition
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Impaired wound contraction
Correct answer: Reduced tissue oxygenation
Reduced tissue oxygenation is the most likely wound healing complication associated with smoking. Smoking causes vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow to tissues and subsequently decreasing oxygen delivery. Oxygen is vital for cellular processes involved in wound healing, including collagen synthesis, immune response, and tissue regeneration. When oxygen delivery is compromised, these processes are impaired, leading to delayed wound healing, increased risk of infection, and poor-quality scar formation.
Biofilm formation is associated with bacterial infection rather than smoking, although smoking may indirectly increase infection risk by impairing immune function.
Smoking does not enhance collagen deposition; instead, it reduces collagen quality, leading to impaired healing.
Impaired wound contraction may occur due to reduced oxygenation and cellular function, but it is a secondary effect of smoking, not a primary impact like reduced tissue oxygenation.
40.
When preparing an irrigation solution for a contaminated wound, which solution is most commonly used?
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Normal saline
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Hydrogen peroxide
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Sterile water
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Alcohol
Correct answer: Normal saline
Normal saline is the most commonly used solution for irrigating contaminated wounds because it is isotonic and effectively cleanses without causing tissue irritation or disruption. Its isotonic nature means it matches the body's natural osmotic balance, making it gentle yet effective in removing debris and bacteria from the wound site, which aids in proper wound healing.
Hydrogen peroxide can damage healthy tissue and delay healing despite its debris-removal capabilities. Sterile water, while free of contaminants, lacks isotonic properties and can cause cellular irritation. Alcohol is highly irritating and damaging to tissues, making it unsuitable for direct wound care.