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NBSTSA CSFA Exam Questions
Page 7 of 25
121.
Which part of the pancreas is responsible for the production of digestive enzymes?
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Acinar cells
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Islets of Langerhans
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Duct cells
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Alpha cells
Correct answer: Acinar cells
Acinar cells in the pancreas are specialized for the production of digestive enzymes, including amylase, lipase, and proteases. These enzymes are crucial for breaking down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in the digestive process. The acinar cells release these enzymes into the pancreatic ducts, which then transport them to the small intestine where digestion occurs.
The Islets of Langerhans consist of endocrine cells that produce hormones such as insulin and glucagon, which regulate blood sugar levels but do not participate in digestion directly.
Duct cells play a role in transporting the enzymes produced by acinar cells but do not generate the enzymes themselves.
Alpha cells, found within the Islets of Langerhans, specifically produce glucagon, a hormone involved in increasing blood sugar levels, and are not involved in enzyme production for digestion.
122.
Which marker is commonly used to monitor prostate cancer progression?
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PSA
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CA-125
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CEA
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AFP
Correct answer: PSA
PSA, or Prostate-Specific Antigen, is the primary marker used to monitor prostate cancer progression. PSA is a protein produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells, and its levels in the blood can reflect changes in prostate cancer status. Elevated PSA levels can indicate the presence of prostate cancer, its recurrence after treatment, or the progression of the disease.
CA-125 is specific to ovarian cancer and does not apply to prostate cancer.
CEA is used primarily for colorectal and gastrointestinal cancers and is not relevant for prostate cancer monitoring.
AFP is associated with liver cancer and certain germ cell tumors, not prostate cancer.
123.
During a surgery, you notice that a team member is not following sterile technique properly, which could compromise patient safety. What is the appropriate action to take based on ethical and legal practices?
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Address the issue immediately and discreetly to prevent contamination
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Discuss the issue with the team member immediately after the surgery
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Ask insightful questions about the team member’s behavior to help them realize their error
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Report the incident to a supervisor to address
Correct answer: Address the issue immediately and discreetly to prevent contamination
Addressing the issue immediately and discreetly is the best course of action to prevent contamination and ensure patient safety. This approach allows for the immediate correction of any breaches in sterile technique, maintaining the sterile environment necessary for the patient's protection. By handling the situation discreetly, you also respect the team member's dignity and foster a collaborative working environment.
Discussing the issue with the team member after the surgery does not address the immediate risk of contamination and patient harm. Asking insightful questions to help the team member realize their error delays the necessary immediate intervention, risking patient safety. Reporting the incident to a supervisor is indirect and does not provide the immediate action required to correct the sterile technique and prevent harm during the procedure.
124.
Which of the following steps is crucial to ensure the availability of necessary surgical instruments?
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Verifying the sterilization indicators of the instrument packs
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Double-checking the patient's identity
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Ensuring that the anesthesia equipment is in working order
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Confirming that preoperative imaging has been completed
Correct answer: Verifying the sterilization indicators of the instrument packs
Verifying the sterilization indicators on instrument packs is critical for ensuring the instruments are sterile and safe, thus preventing infection and ensuring they are ready for use in surgery. This step directly impacts the safety and effectiveness of the surgical procedure.
Double-checking the patient’s identity, while crucial for patient safety, does not pertain to the instruments’ availability. Ensuring anesthesia equipment functionality is necessary for anesthesia management, not instrument availability. Preoperative imaging completion is vital for surgical planning but does not influence the readiness or sterility of surgical instruments.
125.
A patient with hyperthyroidism is scheduled for surgery. Which hormone level is expected to be elevated?
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Triiodothyronine
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Cortisol
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Insulin
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Parathyroid hormone
Correct answer: Triiodothyronine
In hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland becomes overactive, resulting in increased production and release of thyroid hormones, particularly T3 (triiodothyronine). Elevated levels of T3 are a primary indicator of hyperthyroidism, leading to symptoms such as rapid heartbeat, weight loss, and increased metabolism. The overproduction of T3 is a direct consequence of the hyperactivity of the thyroid gland, which characterizes the disorder.
Cortisol, although an important hormone, is produced by the adrenal glands and is unrelated to thyroid function, remaining unaffected in hyperthyroidism.
Similarly, insulin, which controls blood glucose levels, is not influenced by the thyroid gland's activity and shows no elevation in hyperthyroid patients.
Parathyroid hormone is crucial for calcium regulation but is produced by the parathyroid glands. It does not interact with thyroid hormone levels, remaining stable in hyperthyroidism cases.
126.
A patient undergoing a dermatological procedure develops a sudden onset of metallic taste and ringing in the ears after the administration of local anesthesia. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
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Local anesthetic toxicity
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Allergic reaction to the anesthetic
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An expected side effect of the anesthetic
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Incorrect administration technique
Correct answer: Local anesthetic toxicity
The sudden onset of metallic taste and tinnitus after the administration of local anesthesia is indicative of local anesthetic toxicity. This condition arises when anesthetic agents are inadvertently injected into the bloodstream or absorbed too rapidly, leading to systemic effects.
Allergic reactions typically involve dermatological or respiratory symptoms, rather than CNS symptoms like a metallic taste or tinnitus.
Expected side effects are usually mild and predictable; these symptoms are more severe than expected side effects.
Incorrect administration techniques could contribute to toxicity but do not specifically explain the symptom profile.
127.
During a craniotomy for a brain tumor, which neurological structure is most at risk for damage if the tumor is located in the frontal lobe?
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Broca's area
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Optic chiasm
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Cerebellum
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Hippocampus
Correct answer: Broca's area
Broca's area is a key region located in the frontal lobe of the brain, specifically in the dominant hemisphere (usually the left) associated with language production and processing. It plays a critical role in the formulation of speech and language, and damage to this area during a craniotomy for a frontal lobe tumor can lead to language and speech deficits.
The optic chiasm is located near the base of the brain and would not be near the frontal lobe.
The cerebellum, located posteriorly, controls coordination and balance and is not typically involved in frontal lobe surgeries.
The hippocampus is located in the medial temporal lobe and is not directly impacted by frontal lobe surgery.
128.
A patient undergoing aortic aneurysm repair suddenly becomes hypotensive. Which structure is likely compromised, leading to this condition?
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Inferior vena cava
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Renal artery
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Mesenteric artery
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Iliac artery
Correct answer: Inferior vena cava
The inferior vena cava is a critical structure in the body that carries a significant amount of blood from the lower half of the body back to the heart. During aortic aneurysm repair, if this large vein is compromised, it can result in massive blood loss and a sudden drop in blood pressure (hypotension) due to its large blood flow capacity. Ensuring the integrity of the inferior vena cava is essential to maintaining stable hemodynamics during and after the surgery.
The renal artery is essential for kidney function, but its compromise would not result in immediate, severe systemic hypotension to the same degree that the inferior vena cava would.
The mesenteric artery supplies the intestines, and its compromise would be more likely to lead to localized ischemia rather than a sudden drop in blood pressure.
The iliac artery, though significant for lower limb blood supply, would not result in systemic hypotension to the same extent as the inferior vena cava if compromised.
129.
In an emergency setting, which wound closure method is most suitable for rapidly closing a superficial laceration?
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Skin staples
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Subcuticular sutures
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Interrupted silk sutures
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Non-absorbable nylon sutures
Correct answer: Skin staples
Skin staples are ideal for quickly closing superficial lacerations in emergency settings due to their rapid application and secure closure. This efficiency is critical in emergencies where time is of the essence, helping to ensure the wound is closed promptly and effectively.
Subcuticular sutures, while beneficial for cosmetic outcomes, are time-consuming and not practical for rapid emergency use. Interrupted silk sutures also require more time to place, delaying wound closure. Non-absorbable nylon sutures, although potentially effective, take longer to apply compared to the quick and efficient placement of staples and are not as ideal for situations where rapid closure is necessary.
130.
A specimen needs to be sent for microbiological analysis. What is the appropriate medium for transport?
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Sterile saline
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Formalin
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Ethanol
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Dry container
Correct answer: Sterile saline
Sterile saline is the appropriate medium for transporting specimens for microbiological analysis because it maintains the viability of microorganisms, allowing for accurate culture and identification. It provides a suitable environment that preserves the specimen’s integrity for effective analysis.
Formalin and ethanol are fixatives that kill microorganisms, making them unsuitable for microbiological analysis. A dry container does not provide the necessary conditions to preserve the viability of microorganisms, risking desiccation and loss of the sample’s integrity.
131.
How often should the calibration and maintenance of surgical staplers be performed?
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Monthly or as recommended by the manufacturer
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After every surgery
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Twice a week
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Only when there is a noticeable problem
Correct answer: Monthly or as recommended by the manufacturer
Calibration and maintenance of surgical staplers should be performed monthly or as recommended by the manufacturer to ensure optimal performance and patient safety. Regular maintenance helps to identify and fix potential issues before they cause malfunctions during surgery, ensuring that the staplers are always in good working condition and reducing the risk of complications.
Performing maintenance after every surgery is excessive and impractical, leading to unnecessary delays and increased operational costs without significant benefits. Performing it twice a week is not typically required and exceeds standard recommendations, adding unnecessary workload and resource use. Waiting to perform maintenance only when there is a noticeable problem is too infrequent and reactive, potentially allowing minor issues to develop into major malfunctions.
132.
When applying manual hemostasis to control capillary bleeding from a large wound surface, what is the most effective method?
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Continuous pressure with a sterile gauze pad
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Quick, intermittent pressure with a sterile pad
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Application of a tourniquet proximal to the wound
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Irrigation with cold saline
Correct answer: Continuous pressure with a sterile gauze pad
Continuous pressure with a sterile gauze pad is the most effective method for controlling capillary bleeding from a large wound surface because it helps to form a stable clot and stop the bleeding. This method ensures a consistent and effective approach to managing capillary hemorrhage.
Quick, intermittent pressure is not as effective as continuous pressure in forming a stable clot. The application of a tourniquet is not appropriate for capillary bleeding and is generally used for arterial bleeding. Irrigation with cold saline can help reduce bleeding but is not as effective as continuous pressure for controlling capillary bleeding.
133.
A patient undergoes a hernia repair surgery without any entry into the gastrointestinal tract and no break in sterile technique. How should this surgical wound be classified?
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Clean
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Clean-contaminated
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Contaminated
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Dirty or infected
Correct answer: Clean
A hernia repair surgery without any entry into the gastrointestinal tract and no break in sterile technique is classified as a clean wound. Clean wounds are characterized by procedures conducted under strict aseptic conditions without entry into contaminated body cavities or exposure to infectious agents.
Clean-contaminated wounds involve entry into areas with normal flora under controlled conditions, which is not relevant to hernia repair surgery without gastrointestinal tract entry.
Contaminated wounds involve breaks in technique or spillage, which did not occur here.
Dirty or infected wounds involve existing infections or significant contamination, which are not present in this scenario.
134.
When gowning a sterile team member, what is the correct technique to ensure sterility is maintained?
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Present the gown in a way that allows the team member to grasp it and step into it without touching the outside.
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Unfold the gown and place it over the team member's shoulders before they put their arms in the sleeves.
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Assist the team member by holding the inside of the gown sleeves while they insert their hands.
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Hand the gown to the team member, providing assistance as requested.
Correct answer: Present the gown in a way that allows the team member to grasp it and step into it without touching the outside.
The correct technique to ensure sterility is maintained when gowning a sterile team member is to present the gown in a way that allows the team member to grasp it and step into it without touching the outside. This method ensures that the outside of the gown remains sterile and reduces the risk of contamination.
Unfolding the gown and placing it over the team member's shoulders before they put their arms in the sleeves can lead to contamination. Assisting by holding the inside of the gown sleeves while the team member inserts their hands can also result in contamination. Handing the gown to the team member and providing assistance as requested does not ensure a sterile technique, making it an incorrect approach.
135.
How should biological indicators be used to verify the effectiveness of a sterilization process?
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Using them in various locations within a load
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Placing them in the center of each load
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One indicator should be affixed to each instrument
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Mixing them with chemical indicators
Correct answer: Using them in various locations within a load
Biological indicators should be placed in various locations within the load to verify the effectiveness of the sterilization process. This practice ensures that the sterilizing agent reaches all parts of the load, confirming effective sterilization and ensuring patient safety.
Placing biological indicators only in the center of the load fails to account for potential variations in sterilization conditions throughout the entire load. Affixing one indicator to each instrument is not practical and does not provide a comprehensive assessment of the sterilization process. Mixing biological indicators with chemical indicators is not a common practice.
136.
What congenital heart defect involves a hole between the heart's upper chambers?
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Atrial septal defect
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Ventricular septal defect
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Patent ductus arteriosus
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Tetralogy of Fallot
Correct answer: Atrial septal defect
An Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) is a congenital heart defect characterized by a hole in the septum that separates the heart's upper chambers, the atria. This defect can result in the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to increased workload on the heart and potential complications such as heart failure or stroke.
A ventricular septal defect involves a hole between the heart's lower chambers, the ventricles, and is not the same as an ASD.
Patent ductus arteriosus refers to an open ductus arteriosus, which should close after birth, affecting the aorta and pulmonary artery rather than the atria.
Tetralogy of Fallot includes multiple defects, including a ventricular septal defect, making it distinct from an isolated atrial septal defect.
137.
What is the primary advantage of using a laparoscopic insufflator during minimally invasive surgery?
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Maintaining a stable pneumoperitoneum
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Minimizing the risk of postoperative infection
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Reducing the need for manual retraction
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Improving the resolution of the endoscopic camera
Correct answer: Maintaining a stable pneumoperitoneum
Maintaining a stable pneumoperitoneum is the primary advantage of using a laparoscopic insufflator because it provides the necessary space for surgical instruments and visibility, ensuring a controlled environment.
While using an insufflator can indirectly help with infection control by maintaining a closed environment, it is not the primary advantage. Reducing the need for manual retraction is a benefit, but is very peripheral to its main purpose of creating and maintaining the necessary working space. Improving the resolution of the endoscopic camera is not directly related to the function of an insufflator.
138.
In a case of severe abdominal trauma, the surgical team decides to pack the abdomen to control diffuse bleeding. What is a critical step in this process?
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Counting all sponges before closure
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Using radiopaque sponges only
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Applying hemostatic agents to each sponge
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Packing with as many sponges as possible
Correct answer: Counting all sponges before closure
Counting all sponges before closure is a critical step in the process of packing the abdomen to control diffuse bleeding in severe abdominal trauma cases. This practice ensures that no sponges are inadvertently left inside the patient's body, which could lead to severe complications.
Radiopaque sponges help detect any retained sponges on X-rays, but they do not replace the necessity of an accurate count. Hemostatic agents can assist in controlling bleeding but do not address the issue of retained sponges. Packing the abdomen must be done carefully and systematically, not simply packed with as many sponges as possible.
139.
What type of dressing should be applied to a wound with moderate to heavy exudate to promote healing and minimize maceration?
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Foam dressing
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Transparent film dressing
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Hydrocolloid dressing
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Non-adherent gauze dressing
Correct answer: Foam dressing
Foam dressings are ideal for wounds with moderate to heavy exudate because they are highly absorbent and maintain a moist wound environment while preventing maceration. These dressings can handle a significant amount of exudate, which helps to protect the surrounding skin from excessive moisture and supports the healing process by keeping the wound clean and covered.
Transparent film dressings lack absorbency, making them inappropriate for heavily exudating wounds. Hydrocolloid dressings can manage low to moderate exudate but may become oversaturated with heavy exudate, potentially leading to maceration. Non-adherent gauze dressings do not provide adequate absorbency for heavy exudate and may require frequent changes, which can disrupt the wound and impede healing.
140.
How should a microscope be positioned to minimize strain on the surgical team during lengthy procedures?
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Adjusting the height and angle to suit the primary surgeon’s preferences
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Keeping the microscope at a preset, fixed height
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Positioning the microscope to the left side of the operating table
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Placing the microscope away from any external light sources
Correct answer: Adjusting the height and angle to suit the primary surgeon’s preferences
Adjusting the height and angle of the microscope to suit the primary surgeon’s preferences is crucial for minimizing strain during lengthy procedures. This adjustment ensures that the surgeon can work in an ergonomically comfortable position, reducing fatigue and maintaining focus and precision throughout the surgery.
Fixed heights do not accommodate individual ergonomic needs, potentially leading to discomfort.
Positioning the microscope to the left side of the operating table may not suit the surgeon’s requirements.
Avoiding external light sources, while important, does not specifically minimize strain on the surgical team.