NSCA-CPT Exam Questions

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61.

Which of the following catabolic hormone levels are increased as a response to an acute bout of exercise?

I. Testosterone

II. Epinephrine

III. Cortisol

IV. Growth hormone

  • II and III only

  • I and III only

  • II and IV only

Correct answer: II and III only

II and III only is correct because epinephrine and cortisol are released to maintain blood glucose levels and provide energy. Cortisol is also used to remove any damaged tissue that occurs through exercise. The magnitude of this hormonal response is dependent on the characteristics of the exercise bout.

I and III only is incorrect because testosterone is an anabolic hormone. II and IV only is incorrect because growth hormone is an anabolic hormone.

62.

Which of the following is a benefit of using machines for resistance training?

  • No spotter is required

  • One machine can usually be used to train multiple muscle groups

  • They do not take up a significant amount of gym space

  • Most machines are adaptable for very short or very tall individuals

Correct answer: No spotter is required

Machines are generally considered safe pieces of equipment. The range of motion is controlled and no spotter is required.

Drawbacks of training with machines include:

  • Multiple machines are needed to train different muscle groups.
  • Machines take up a lot of gym space.
  • Most machines are not adaptable for very tall or very short individuals.

63.

A client who can run a six-minute mile for three miles wants to start working on Long Slow Distance (LSD) training. Which of the following programs would be most appropriate for him?

  • Running at a nine-minute mile pace for 6 miles

  • Cycling with high-intensity intervals for 10 minutes

  • Sprinting hills for 30 seconds on, 10 seconds off for 10 rounds

  • Jumping rope for five, three-minute rounds

Correct answer: Running at a nine-minute mile pace for six miles

LSD training is a good way to manipulate training variables such as intensity and duration to achieve certain training outcomes. Since this athlete can complete three miles at a six-minute-per-mile pace, decreasing his speed to nine minutes per mile and increasing the number of miles he ran would best help him achieve his LSD goals.

64.

Which of the following is not typically part of the initial interview?

  • Testing the client's cardiovascular fitness

  • Determination of compatibility

  • Discussion of goals

  • Development of a trainer-client agreement

Correct answer: Testing the client's cardiovascular fitness

Testing a client's cardiovascular fitness will happen later on.

The initial interview is an opportunity for the trainer and client to establish whether or not they are a good fit for one another. During this meeting, there is typically a discussion of goals, the development of an agreement, and a general discussion of what is expected from one another during training sessions.

65.

When performing the semistraddle stretch (also known as the modified hurdler's stretch) on the right leg, where is the placement of the left foot?

  • The sole of the left foot should be placed on the medial side of the right leg near the knee.

  • The left knee should be bent with the foot placed flat on the floor.

  • The left leg should be extended, and the foot should be dorsiflexed.

Correct answer: The sole of the left foot should be placed on the medial side of the right leg near the knee.

The semistraddle (modified hurdler's) stretch is performed seated on the ground with one leg extended and one leg bent. The extended leg is the focus of the stretch, which targets the hamstrings, low back, and calves. When stretching the right leg:

  • The right leg should be straight.
  • The left leg should be bent with the bottom of the foot placed along the medial side (inside) of the right leg near the knee.
  • The outside of the left leg should be touching or at least close to the floor.

To perform the stretch, reach for the toes of the right foot without rounding the back, bending the knee, or allowing the leg to externally rotate. Pull the toes of the right foot toward you to feel the stretch. Repeat on the left side.

66.

Which of the following makes the largest contribution to the body's daily energy expenditure?

  • Resting metabolic rate

  • Physical activity

  • Thermic effect of food

Correct answer: Resting metabolic rate

Resting metabolic rate is correct because this accounts for 60 to 75% of daily energy expenditure. It is a measure of the calories required for maintaining normal body functions. Factors that can affect resting metabolic rate are age, body composition, hormonal environment, and genetics.

Physical activity is incorrect because this is the second largest component of energy expenditure. Thermic effect of food is incorrect because this accounts for 7 to 10% of daily energy expenditure.

67.

Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate for a pregnant client who is two weeks away from her due date?

  • Machine chest press

  • Standing overhead press

  • Body weight squats

Correct answer: Machine chest press 

Machine chest press is correct because of the change in the center of gravity of the pregnant woman later in pregnancy due to the weight of the fetus. Therefore, the use of weight machines may be more advisable, as they provide more stability and support than free-weight exercises. This recommendation is particularly important for clients who were sedentary before the pregnancy.

Standing overhead press and body weight squats are incorrect because these require stability to perform.

68.

Which of the following is an appropriate spotting technique during the back squat?

  • Wrapping the arms around the client's chest/shoulders and standing up with him if he begins to fail the lift

  • Gripping the bar with an alternated grip and pulling upward if the client begins to fail the lift

  • Gripping the bar with a supinated grip and pulling upward if the client begins to fail the lift

  • Squatting deep below the client and pushing upward on the bar if the client begins to fail

Correct answer: Wrapping the arms around the client's chest/shoulders and standing up with him if he begins to fail the lift

The "hug and lift" is an appropriate spotting technique for the back squat. This allows you to safely assist the client in completing the lift when they begin to fail. However, you should be roughly the same height as your client for this technique to be effective.

Gripping the bar and pulling or pushing it to help the client will likely lead to injury due to a lack of leverage in this position, regardless of the grip position.

69.

Which of the following is not a major difference between the biceps curl with resistance bands and the biceps curl with dumbbells?

  • The band increases the activation of the brachialis, while the dumbbell relies on the biceps brachii

  • The band allows for variable resistance, the dumbbell provides constant resistance

  • The dumbbell relies on gravity for resistance, the band does not

  • The dumbbell allows for an easy transition between exercises, bands often require more adjustment to switch between exercises

Correct answer: The band increases the activation of the brachialis, while the dumbbell relies on the biceps brachii

Both the band bicep curl and the dumbbell curl activate the biceps brachii, brachialis, and other elbow flexors.

The main differences between bands and dumbbells involve the anchor point, which often necessitates adjustment when switching between exercises, the relationship with gravity, which is relatively unimportant for band exercises, and the issue of variable vs constant resistance, which are supplied by bands and dumbbells respectively.

70.

Which of the following is true of the relationship between exercise intensity and duration?

  • Exercise intensity and duration are inversely related

  • Exercise intensity and duration are directly related

  • There is no relationship between exercise intensity and duration

  • There exists a "bell-curve" relationship between intensity and duration

Correct answer: Exercise intensity and duration are inversely related

As exercise intensity increases, the duration must logically decrease in order for the athlete to sustain the intensity in question, and vice versa.

71.

A client began training two months ago and feels that performing the deadlift for sets of 10 has become too easy. Which of the following progressions would be the most appropriate for this client?

  • 5% increase in load

  • 2.5% increase in load

  • 10% increase in load

Correct answer: 5% increase in load

5% increase in load is correct because this is an appropriate progression for a beginner client with a lower body core exercise. Progressions are needed in order to continue to overload a client for continued improvement. When progressions are needed can be determined by periodic repetition maximum assessments and by using the 2-for-2 rule.

2.5% increase in load is incorrect because this would be appropriate for an upper body exercise for this client. 10% increase in load is incorrect because this would be appropriate for an intermediate or advanced client.

72.

Which of the following is not a description of proper exercise technique during the upward movement phase of the back squat exercise?

  • Maintain knee valgus or knee varus throughout the movement

  • Extend the hips and knees at the same rate

  • Maintain a flat back position

Correct answer: Maintain knee valgus or knee varus throughout the movement

The knees should be aligned over the feet during the upward movement phase. Allowing the knees to collapse in is known as knee valgus. This places excessive strain on the ligaments of the knee and, if not corrected, can lead to injury while performing this exercise. Knee varus is when the knees are positioned on the outside of the feet. This can also put strain on the lower body and the knee joint.

Extending the hips and knees at the same rate and maintaining a flat back position are correct technique descriptions of this exercise.

73.

A client's resting heart rate is measured at 110 beats per minute. Which of the following conditions is this client displaying?

  • Tachycardia

  • Bradycardia

  • Hypertension

Correct answer: Tachycardia

Tachycardia is correct because this condition occurs when the resting heart rate is greater than 100 beats per minute. Tachycardia occurs when an abnormality in the heart produces rapid electrical signals. This can seriously disrupt normal heart function, increase the risk of stroke, or cause sudden cardiac arrest or death.

Bradycardia is incorrect because this is a resting heart rate lower than 60 beats per minute. Hypertension is incorrect because this is high systolic or diastolic or both blood pressure.

74.

A fitness facility has forty feet of wall space. What is the maximum number of bench press stations with 7-foot-long barbells that can be placed along this wall?

  • Three

  • Four

  • Two

Correct answer: Three

Three is correct because a minimum of thirty-three feet of linear space is needed for three bench press stations. The three barbells will account for 21 feet of space. There must be three feet between the ends of each bar (6 feet, 27 feet total) and three feet between the end of the bar and the wall (6 feet, 33 feet total).

Four is incorrect because this would require a minimum of forty-three feet. Two is incorrect because this would only require twenty-three feet.

75.

A pregnant client arrives at her session with a list of relative contraindications. If you or she observe any of these things happening, what should you do?

  • Immediately end her session and cancel her future sessions until she is cleared by her physician

  • Continue her session, monitoring her symptoms

  • Instruct her that she cannot continue to exercise during pregnancy and that she should see her doctor ASAP

  • Begin emergency procedures and call 911

Correct answer: Immediately end her session and cancel her future sessions until she is cleared by her physician

Relative contraindications are those issues that may prevent the client from exercising but require further investigation by a physician.

Absolute contraindications are those that require an immediate cessation of exercise and the client should be seen by physicians as soon as possible.

76.

Which of the following is not part of the ACSM preparticipation screening algorithm?

  • Exercise preferences

  • Exercise status

  • Renal disease

  • Metabolic disease

Correct answer: Exercise preferences

When using the ACSM preparticipation screening algorithm, the trainer must consider cardiovascular disease risk, renal disease risk, metabolic disease risk, and personal signs and symptoms of disease.

77.

When a client whose previous maximum sprinting speed was 20 mph now sprints 17 mph during partner-resisted sprinting, which of the following actions should occur?

  • Decrease the resistance

  • Increase the resistance

  • Change to assisted sprinting

Correct answer: Decrease the resistance

Decrease the resistance is correct because sprinting speed should not slow by more than ten percent as a result of any resistance. Decreasing sprinting speed by more than ten percent can alter sprinting technique and may result in decreased performance. 

Partner-resisted sprinting is used to help a client increase their stride length and speed force.

Increase the resistance is incorrect because this will likely continue to decrease sprinting speed. Change to assisted sprinting is incorrect because this drill serves a different purpose.

78.

Which of the following is most likely to occur first when a client no longer participates in resistance exercise?

  • Loss of fast-twitch cross-sectional area

  • Loss of slow-twitch cross-sectional area

  • Decrease in maximal oxygen consumption

Correct answer: Loss of fast-twitch cross-sectional area

Loss of fast-twitch cross-sectional area is correct because the strength and power losses from resistance exercise detraining are due to muscle mass loss and changes in neuromuscular function. This muscle atrophy of skeletal muscle occurs faster in the fast-twitch muscle fiber. The detraining process, however, is relatively slow, and it may take a client months to reach their pre-training state.

Loss of slow-twitch cross-sectional area is incorrect because fast-twitch muscle mass is lost faster than slow-twitch. Decrease in maximal oxygen consumption is incorrect because resistance training has no effect on this adaptation.

79.

A personal trainer tells another staff member, with whom the client has no interaction, that the client has been diagnosed with diabetes and hypertension. Which of the following claims could the client bring against the personal trainer?

  • Negligence

  • Breach of contract

  • Libel

Correct answer: Negligence

Negligence is correct because the personal trainer breached their duty by an improper disclosure of the client's private health information. In addition, the personal trainer violated the privacy rule of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). It is the responsibility of the personal trainer to maintain the confidentiality of the client's issues and records.

Breach of contract is incorrect because, unless there is language against sharing health information in the signed agreement, this situation falls under tort law. Libel is incorrect because the personal trainer did not publish false information that damaged the client's reputation.

80.

Which of the following is not one of the results of a good warm-up session?

  • Increased muscle viscosity

  • Increased blood flow to muscles

  • Increased speed of nerve impulse transmissions

  • Lowered energy rate of metabolic reactions

Correct answer: Increased muscle viscosity

A warm-up is important before any type of exercise or competition. A good warm-up accomplishes all of the following:

  • Increased blood flow to muscles
  • Increased sensitivity of nerve receptors
  • Increased disassociation of O2 from hemoglobin
  • Increased speed of nerve impulse transmissions
  • Reduced muscle viscosity
  • Lowered energy rates of metabolic reactions