CompTIA Project+ Exam Questions

Page 1 of 25

1.

Social factors related to ESG include which of the following?

Select all that apply.

  • A project makes it harder for customers to interact with the organization 

  • A project damages organizational goodwill

  • The impact of a project on air quality

  • How a project will be monitored

Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) factors can significantly impact a project. Project managers should understand how ESG factors may influence their work.

If a project makes it harder for customers to interact with the organization and damages organizational goodwill, these are examples of concerns related to social factors.

The impact of a project on air quality is an example of an environmental factor.

The way a project is monitored is a governance factor.

2.

Which term describes a project management approach in which each stage of the project must be completed in a step-by-step order?

  • Waterfall

  • Scrum

  • Lean

  • Extreme Programming

Correct answer: Waterfall

The Waterfall method, also known as a predictive methodology, takes a step-by-step approach with each stage of a project being completed in a specific order. 

Scrum, Lean, and Extreme Programming are all types of Agile methodology. In Agile methodologies, the projects typically have evolving requirements, higher degrees of uncertainty, and high risk, unlike in the Waterfall methodology. 

3.

Amelia is responsible for managing all of the work associated with Project Y. She manages the team and the scope and communicates with stakeholders. 

Which BEST describes Amelia's role in Project Y?

  • Project manager

  • Project sponsor

  • SME

  • Business analyst 

Correct answer: Project manager

The project manager is the person who is responsible for managing all the work associated with a given project. The project manager has many duties, including managing the project team, managing the budget, managing the scope, and communicating with both stakeholders and project team members. 

The project sponsor is responsible for approving and signing the project charter. They are usually an executive in the company with the authority to assign money and resources to the project. A Subject Matter Expert (SME) is someone who has expertise and knowledge of how to perform specific work. The business analyst is responsible for gathering and documenting the requirements of the project. 

4.

During the Execution phase of a project to develop a new software product, you realize that some product features are misaligned with the requirements referenced in the project management plan. What type of change describes the work done to bring the software into alignment with those requirements?

  • Corrective action

  • Patch plan

  • Static code analysis 

  • Recursive correction 

Correct answer: Corrective action

Change requests typically deal with updates to scope, schedule, or budgets. However, there are three other important types of changes to know for the Project+ exam:

  • Corrective actions: align the actual work in the project with the project management plan
  • Preventive actions: reduce the likelihood that a risk negatively impacts a project
  • Defect repairs: fix or replace broken or poorly functioning components 

A patch plan, static code analysis, and recursive correction are not standard change types.

5.

Mahan is a quality control engineer at Acme Inc. Mahan is reviewing a control chart for a widget that Acme manufactures, and he notices that recent samples are above the upper control limit. What should he infer from the data?

  • Acme Inc. may be overspending on defect prevention

  • Customers may reject the widgets due to quality issues

  • The number of defects in the recent samples is too high

  • Acme Inc. has struck the right balance between cost and quality

Correct answer: Acme Inc. may be overspending on defect prevention

A lower control limit on a control chart measures the value at which customers or end-users would reject the product due to defects. The upper control limit is the point at which preventing more defects is cost-prohibitive. The ideal state is between the upper and lower limits on the chart as that strikes a balance between cost and quality that is typically acceptable from a business perspective. 

In the question, recent samples are above the upper control limit, which implies that Acme Inc. may be overspending on defect prevention as they are in the cost-prohibitive range. 

6.

Which of the following are typically included in a business case document?

Select all that apply.

  • Recommended solutions

  • Problem or opportunity analysis

  • Detailed test plan

  • Details of how to perform sustaining operations

A business case document helps determine whether investment in a particular project is worth the cost. Typical elements of a business case include:

  • Description
  • Justification
  • Alignment with a strategic plan
  • Stakeholders
  • Problem or opportunity analysis
  • Risk analysis
  • Alternative solutions
  • Recommended solutions
  • Feasibility study results

Details of how to perform sustaining operations and detailed test plans are generally outside the scope of a business case document. 

7.

Which of the following BEST describes the process of validation in project management?

  • The process of ensuring that the final product meets the customer's needs and requirements

  • The process of inspecting a product to ensure that it meets specified standards 

  • The process of testing individual components of a product to ensure they work as intended

  • The process of evaluating a product or process to identify areas for improvement

Correct answer: The process of ensuring that the final product meets the customer's needs and requirements

Validation is the process of evaluating the final product to ensure that it meets the customer's needs and requirements. This involves testing the product or service to ensure that it performs as expected and that it meets the specifications that were agreed upon. 

Inspecting for compliance with standards, testing individual components, and identifying areas for improvement are not part of the validation process during the closing phase of a project. 

8.

Which of the following would NOT occur in the Closing phase of a project?

  • Monitoring the budget

  • Validating deliverables

  • Removing access

  • Obtaining feedback

Correct answer: Monitoring the budget

Monitoring the budget would be done in the Execution phase of the project management life cycle.

The Closing phase of the project management life cycle includes activities such as validating deliverables, removing access, closing contracts, signing off on the project, and obtaining feedback.

9.

Hao is a quality engineer at Acme Inc. There are ten known defects with a product that Acme manufactures. Hao wants to create a Pareto diagram to identify which defects have the greatest impact. Assuming these ten defects are the only defects that have been reported, Hao needs which data point(s) to create the diagram? 

Select all that apply.

  • Number of occurrences for each defect

  • IRR

  • NPV

  • ROI

A Pareto diagram is a bar chart that orders values from left (highest) to right (lowest) based on frequency. In quality control, the intent of a Pareto diagram is to enable a focus on the causes that will have the greatest impact. The idea is that focusing on the causes of high-frequency defects will have a greater impact than focusing on addressing the causes of low-frequency defects.

A table like the one below would enable the creation of a Pareto diagram.

Defect numberNumber of occurrencesPercentage of total defectsCumulative percentage
11105555
2603085
3201095
4105100

If Hao knows the number of occurrences for each defect, he can derive the percentage of total defects and cumulative percentage values.

The other answers are financial formulas and metrics that are not directly related to the creation of a Pareto diagram.

10.

Which of the following is NOT a typical output of solution design in the Initiation stage of a project?

  • Detailed project schedule

  • High-level solution design document

  • Detailed technical design document

  • Conceptual architecture diagram

Correct answer: Detailed project schedule

During solution design in the Initiation stage, a high-level solution design document, detailed technical design document, and conceptual architecture diagram are typically created to outline the overall design of the solution. 

A detailed project schedule is not usually produced during this phase but during the Planning stage. 

11.

During the project's Planning phase, the team successfully defined the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), decomposing the work into workable units. Which activity is NOT enabled by completion of the WBS?

  • Definition of access requirements

  • Estimation of project expenses

  • Estimation of time to complete tasks

  • Assignment of project resources

Correct answer: Definition of access requirements

Access requirements should be defined during a project's Initiation phase and completed prior to starting the Planning phase. 

Once work units have been defined in the WBS, the project manager can lead the efforts of assigning team members and estimating the time and cost of each work unit.

12.

What is the first artifact that will be created once the business case has been approved?

  • Preliminary scope statement

  • Project charter

  • Project schedule

  • Issue registry 

Correct answer: Preliminary scope statement

The preliminary scope statement describes the objectives and purpose of the project. It is the first artifact that should be created once the business case has been approved.

The preliminary scope statement should be created before the project charter, the project schedule, and the issue registry. 

13.

Which of the following is NOT a common type of testing for a software project?

Select all that apply.

  • DevOps

  • DevSecOps 

  • Stress

  • Integration

DevOps is a collaborative framework that combines development and operations on one team. DevSecOps adds security to DevOps. Neither is a type of testing, but DevOps and DevSecOps teams may run tests. 

Common types of software tests include:

  • Smoke testing: high-level testing designed to quickly identify failures that could prevent a production release
  • Unit testing: performed on individual modules of code
  • Integration testing: tests multiple software modules together
  • End-to-end testing: tests a complete system end-to-end
  • Regression testing: tests for issues that may arise after code is changed
  • Stress testing: tests software under heavy loads
  • Performance testing: similar to stress testing but focuses on performance issues, such as slow responses and suboptimal resource utilization
  • User acceptance testing (UAT): testing performed by end-users of the system

14.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of using Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)?

  • To measure project performance against project objectives and goals

  • To define project scope and deliverables

  • To monitor the progress of project activities

  • To identify project risks and their mitigation plans

Correct answer: To measure project performance against project objectives and goals

Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are used to measure and evaluate the progress and performance of a project against its objectives and goals. KPIs are metrics that help you determine whether or not your project is on track.

Defining project scope and deliverables is done through the project scope statement and other project planning documents. Monitoring the progress of project activities is typically done through project monitoring and control processes. Identifying project risks and their mitigation plans is typically done through risk management processes.

15.

Which stakeholders typically conduct impact assessments to quantify the potential impact of a change on a project?

  • SMEs

  • Business analysts

  • PMOs

  • FVs

Correct answer: SMEs

Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) familiar with the affected area of a project typically conduct an impact assessment and work with the project manager to quantify the impact of a change request. 

Business analysts are typically responsible for gathering and documenting requirements. 

FV (Future Value) is an input to the NPV formula. 

A Project Management Office (PMO) is a business unit that helps enable a uniform approach to project management across an organization.

16.

According to NIST, how many cloud deployment models are there?

  • Four

  • Three 

  • Five

  • Six

Correct answer: Four

According to the National Institute for Standards (NIST), there are four cloud deployment models:

  • Private cloud: In this model, the cloud is used by one organization. The organization may directly manage and operate the cloud or may outsource management and operation to a third party.
  • Community cloud: In this model, a group of organizations with a similar set of needs operates a cloud that is dedicated to those organizations. This model is effectively a multi-organization version of a private cloud.
  • Public cloud: In this model, a service provider offers cloud resources to the public. 
  • Hybrid cloud: This model combines two or more of the other models. 

17.

What is the purpose of a Service-Level Agreement (SLA) in project management?

  • To define the expected level of service to be provided to the customer or user

  • To assign tasks and responsibilities to team members

  • To track progress and performance against the project plan

  • To evaluate the success of the project at its completion

Correct answer: To define the expected level of service to be provided to the customer or user

A Service-Level Agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the expected level of service to be provided to the customer or user.

Assigning tasks and responsibilities to team members is typically done through the project plan and other project management documents. Tracking the progress and performance of the project plan is typically done through project monitoring and control processes. Evaluating the success of the project at its completion is typically done through project closing processes.

18.

Which of the following is the BEST definition of an issue log in project management?

  • A document used to record and monitor issues throughout the project life cycle

  • A tool used to track changes to project scope and requirements

  • A document used to record and monitor risks throughout the project life cycle

  • A tool used to track project milestones and deliverables

Correct answer: A document used to record and monitor issues throughout the project life cycle

An issue log is a document used to record and monitor issues throughout the project life cycle. It typically includes information such as the issue description, the assigned owner, the status, and any action taken or planned to resolve the issue. 

Tracking changes to project scope and requirements is typically done through a change control system or change log and risks are typically tracked in a risk log. Tracking project milestones and deliverables is typically done in a project schedule. 

19.

Acme Inc. has developed grammar-checking software that it provides as SaaS to anyone willing to pay a subscription fee. What type of cloud deployment model is this?

  • Public

  • Private

  • Hybrid

  • Community 

Correct answer: Public

According to the National Institute for Standards (NIST), there are four cloud deployment models:

  • Private cloud: In this model, the cloud is used by one organization. The organization may directly manage and operate the cloud or may outsource management and operation to a third party.
  • Community cloud: In this model, a group of organizations with a similar set of needs operates a cloud that is dedicated to those organizations. This model is effectively a multi-organization version of a private cloud.
  • Public cloud: In this model, a service provider offers cloud resources to the public.
  • Hybrid cloud: This model combines two or more of the other models.

Offering Software as a Service (SaaS) to the public is a typical example of the public cloud deployment model.

20.

Which of the following is one of the categories in the Salience model?

  • Influence

  • Interest

  • Availability 

  • Priority 

Correct answer: Influence 

The Salience model is a complex model for stakeholder categorization and analysis. It is particularly useful for projects involving many stakeholders and is displayed as a Venn diagram. Stakeholders that are in the middle of the diagram are typically the biggest influencers on a project, while stakeholders that fall into only one category are less likely to have a significant impact on the project. 

The three categories in the Salience model are:

  • Power
  • Urgency
  • Influence