BCSP CHST Exam Questions

Page 6 of 20

101.

Which standard in the BCSP Code of Ethics emphasizes acting with responsibility and integrity and maintaining fairness and honesty in professional conduct?

  • Be honest, fair, and impartial

  • Hold paramount the safety and health of people

  • Avoid deceptive acts that falsify or misrepresent 

  • Seek opportunities to be of constructive service 

Correct answer: Be honest, fair, and impartial

The standard emphasizing acting with responsibility and integrity, maintaining fairness and honesty in professional conduct, is to be honest, fair, and impartial; act with responsibility and integrity, and adhere to high standards of ethical conduct with balanced care for the interests of the public, employers, clients, employees, colleagues, and the profession. 

Holding paramount the safety and health of people and protecting the environment focuses on safety and advisory roles. 

Avoiding deceptive acts ensures integrity in qualifications but does not encompass the broader aspect of fairness and honesty. 

Seeking opportunities for constructive service highlights community engagement rather than professional conduct.

102.

What could happen if a water-based extinguisher is used to put out a Class C (electrical) fire?

  • The user could suffer from electrical shock due to water's conductivity

  • The fire could spread more quickly due to the flammable liquids involved

  • The water could cause the fire to reignite due to the presence of combustible metals

  • The fire could be safely extinguished without any risk

Correct answer: The user could suffer from electrical shock due to water's conductivity

Using a water-based extinguisher on a Class C fire, which involves energized electrical equipment, poses a significant risk of electrical shock. Water is a good conductor of electricity, and applying it to an electrical fire could result in the user being electrocuted. 

The other answer choices describe scenarios related to other fire classes: flammable liquids are associated with Class B fires, combustible metals with Class D fires, and using the correct extinguisher would safely put out the fire without risk, which is not applicable when using the wrong type of extinguisher.

103.

Which type of sprinkler system is designed to release water only when a fire detection system, such as a smoke detector or heat detector, activates a valve?

  • Pre-action systems

  • Wet pipe systems

  • Dry pipe systems

  • Deluge systems

Correct answer: Pre-action systems

Pre-action systems are designed to release water only when a fire detection system, such as a smoke detector or heat detector, activates a valve. This type of system adds an additional layer of control by requiring both the fire detection system to sense a fire and the sprinkler system to be triggered before water is released. 

Wet pipe systems have water in the pipes at all times and activate immediately when a sprinkler head is opened. 

Dry pipe systems have air or nitrogen in the pipes, and water is released when the system is triggered. 

Deluge systems release water through open sprinkler heads when a deluge valve is activated by a fire alarm system.

104.

What are biomarkers?

  • Substances, structures, or processes that can be measured in human tissues to predict disease and assess exposure.

  • Chemical substances that are used to develop treatments for diseases and illnesses.

  • Indicators of environmental quality that are used to monitor pollution levels and other environmental factors.

  • Methods and procedures that are employed to treat occupational injuries and ensure worker safety.

Correct answer: Substances, structures, or processes that can be measured in human tissues to predict disease and assess exposure.

Biomarkers are defined as substances, structures, or processes that can be measured in human tissues and may predict disease. They include markers of exposure that measure internal dose, such as blood lead levels, and markers that determine susceptibility to disease, which may test DNA, immunologic response, or specific gene sequences associated with certain diseases. These attributes make biomarkers essential in predicting and managing health risks associated with various exposures and conditions.

Biomarkers are not chemical substances used to develop treatments, indicators of environmental quality, or methods and procedures to treat occupational injuries. 

105.

What is the PRIMARY difference between attitudes and behaviors in the context of safety programs?

  • Attitudes refer to internal predispositions to behavior, whereas behaviors refer to observable actions

  • Attitudes are observable actions, while behaviors are internal predispositions

  • Attitudes and behaviors are both easily observable and measurable

  • Behaviors are difficult to change, whereas attitudes are easily influenced

Correct answer: Attitudes refer to internal predispositions to behavior, whereas behaviors refer to observable actions

Attitudes refer to internal predispositions to behavior, meaning they are the underlying feelings or beliefs that influence how a person behaves, and these are difficult to observe and measure directly. In contrast, behaviors are observable actions that can be measured, making them more straightforward to identify and analyze. This distinction is important for effective safety management, as it is often easier to measure and modify behaviors directly than to change underlying attitudes. 

The other answer options are incorrect because they either reverse the definitions of attitudes and behaviors or make incorrect claims about their observability and measurability.

106.

What are the four styles of text charts used in training sessions?

  • Titles, Lists, Organization charts, and Tables

  • Slides, Videos, Infographics, and Text charts

  • Handouts, Posters, Pamphlets, and Text charts

  • Graphs, Diagrams, Flowcharts, and Text charts

Correct answer: Titles, Lists, Organization charts, and Tables

The four styles of text charts used in training sessions are titles, lists, organization charts, and tables. Titles introduce presentations, lists organize sequential thoughts or central ideas, organization charts illustrate lines of authority and responsibilities, and tables display data in columns. 

Slides, videos, and infographics are visual aids, not text chart styles. Handouts, posters, and pamphlets are forms of printed materials, not text charts. Graphs, diagrams, and flowcharts are graphical representations, not text chart styles.

107.

Which of the following is a key rule for safe crane operation?

  • Keep crane hoisting ropes vertical, and do not use the crane for side pulls

  • Lower the block below the point where less than two full wraps of rope remain on the hoisting drum

  • Swing the load to reach areas not directly under the crane before starting the hoist

  • Start lifting the load with the crane controls set to full speed for maximum efficiency

Correct answer: Keep crane hoisting ropes vertical, and do not use the crane for side pulls

Keeping crane hoisting ropes vertical and not using the crane for side pulls is essential for safe operation. Side pulls can cause the load to swing unpredictably and impose uneven stresses on the crane, leading to potential accidents. 

Lowering the block below the point where less than two full wraps of rope remain on the drum is unsafe because it risks the rope coming off the drum. S

winging the load to reach areas not directly under the crane before starting the hoist is dangerous because it can lead to uncontrolled movement of the load. 

Starting the lift with the crane controls set to full speed is also unsafe, as it can cause abrupt, jerky movements that increase the risk of accidents.

108.

What activity accounts for 20% to 45% of all occupational injuries?

  • Handling of materials

  • Operating heavy machinery

  • Working at heights

  • Using power tools

Correct answer: Handling of materials

Handling of materials is responsible for 20% to 45% of all occupational injuries. This can include activities such as lifting, carrying, or moving materials, which can lead to common injuries like strains, sprains, fractures, and contusions. 

Operating heavy machinery, working at heights, and using power tools are all activities that pose risks, but they do not account for as large a percentage of workplace injuries as material handling.

109.

Which of the following BEST defines a flammable liquid according to safety standards?

  • A liquid having a flash point below 100°F (37.8°C)

  • A liquid having a flash point at or above 100°F (37.8°C)

  • A liquid that ignites only at temperatures above 200°F (93.3°C)

  • A liquid that boils at temperatures above 100°F (37.8°C)

Correct answer: A liquid having a flash point below 100°F (37.8°C)

Flammable liquids are defined as those having a flash point below 100°F (37.8°C), making them more prone to ignite at lower temperatures compared to combustible liquids. This key characteristic distinguishes them from combustible liquids, which have higher flash points. 

The other answer options either suggest a higher flash point or confuse flammability with other properties, such as boiling point or ignition temperature, which do not accurately define flammable liquids.

110.

Which color fire hydrant indicates the highest flow rate of water in gallons per minute (GPM)?

  • Blue

  • Red

  • Orange

  • Green

Correct answer: Blue

A blue fire hydrant indicates the highest flow rate, exceeding 1,500 gallons per minute (GPM). This high flow rate is essential for situations that require a substantial water supply, such as large-scale fires. 

Red hydrants, on the other hand, indicate the lowest flow rate, less than 500 GPM. Orange hydrants fall between 500 and 1,000 GPM, and green hydrants have a flow rate between 1,000 and 1,500 GPM. Knowing these color codes allows firefighters to quickly assess which hydrant will provide the necessary water supply during an emergency.

111.

What is the primary difference between an "incident" and an "accident" as defined in safety and health terms?

  • An incident is an undesired event that may cause harm or damage, while an accident specifically results in injury, death, or property damage.

  • An incident is always preventable, whereas an accident is unavoidable.

  • An incident results in injury or damage, while an accident does not.

  • An incident is a minor event, while an accident is a major event.

Correct answer: An incident is an undesired event that may cause harm or damage, while an accident specifically results in injury, death, or property damage.

An incident is defined as an undesired event that may cause personal harm or other damage. It includes any event that has the potential to lead to injuries, illnesses, or property damage. An accident, on the other hand, is an occurrence in a sequence of events that produces unintended injury, death, or property damage. Therefore, the primary difference lies in the outcome: incidents may lead to harm or damage, while accidents result in actual injury, death, or damage. 

The other answer options are incorrect as they either mischaracterize the terms or fail to distinguish between potential and actual outcomes.

112.

Which trainer/speaker aid is particularly useful for allowing the presenter to highlight specific parts of a presentation?

  • Laser pointers

  • Easels

  • Charts

  • Teleprompters

Correct answer: Laser pointers

Laser pointers are particularly useful for allowing the presenter to highlight specific parts of a presentation. They enable the speaker to draw attention to important details on slides or charts, ensuring that the audience can follow along with the key points. 

Easels are used to display charts or boards but do not aid in emphasizing specific areas. Charts present data visually but don't help in highlighting details. Teleprompters assist speakers in delivering their script but do not focus on drawing attention to specific parts of the visual presentation. Thus, laser pointers are the best tool for this purpose.

113.

What is the PRIMARY purpose of Class G helmets according to ANSI/ISEA standards?

  • Class G helmets offer general protection against impact hazards, including falling or flying objects, and are used in industrial settings

  • Class G helmets are designed to protect against high-voltage electrical shock and burns, making them suitable for electrical utility workers

  • Class G helmets are specifically designed to provide respiratory protection in environments with airborne particulates

  • Class G helmets are intended for use in extreme temperatures, providing thermal insulation and protection

Correct answer: Class G helmets offer general protection against impact hazards, including falling or flying objects, and are used in industrial settings

Class G helmets are intended to provide general protection against impact hazards such as falling or flying objects, making them suitable for use in industrial settings. The classification focuses on impact protection in various industrial applications.

They do not offer high-voltage electrical protection, which is the purpose of Class E helmets. 

Class G helmets are not designed for respiratory protection or for use in extreme temperatures. 

114.

Before presenting, what should trainers do to ensure the equipment is in good working order?

  • Check the equipment a day ahead of time

  • Train employees on safety protocols

  • Schedule the presentation room a month in advance

  • Collect feedback from previous sessions

Correct answer: Check the equipment a day ahead of time

Checking the equipment a day ahead of time ensures it is in good working order. 

Training employees on safety protocols is important but not directly related to presentation preparation. Scheduling the presentation room a month in advance helps with planning but doesn't address equipment readiness. Collecting feedback from previous sessions is useful for improving content but does not ensure the functionality of the equipment to be used.

115.

What is the PRIMARY objective of a Process Safety Management (PSM) program?

  • To prevent the release of hazardous chemicals that could endanger employees and the public

  • To establish a record-keeping system for chemical use

  • To ensure that employees have access to personal protective equipment (PPE)

  • To minimize the cost of chemical management within a facility

Correct answer: To prevent the release of hazardous chemicals that could endanger employees and the public

The primary objective of a PSM program is to prevent the release of hazardous chemicals that could endanger employees and the public. 

While record-keeping is a part of PSM, its main focus is on preventing chemical accidents, not just maintaining records. Ensuring access to PPE is important but is not the central focus of PSM. Minimizing the cost of chemical management may be a concern for businesses, but it is not the primary goal of PSM, which prioritizes safety above all.

116.

Which control method can best be described as: "Isolation of source; lockout procedures, design, process, or procedural changes; monitoring and warning equipment"?

  • Engineering

  • Administrative

  • Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

  • Substitution 

Correct answer: Engineering

Engineering controls involve the isolation of sources, lockout procedures, design, process, or procedural changes, as well as the use of monitoring and warning equipment to reduce or eliminate hazards. 

Administrative controls focus on changing work procedures and practices, while Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is used to protect employees from hazards. Substitution controls involve replacing something that produces a hazard with something that does not produce a hazard. 

117.

What is the minimum required clearance between a crane or its load and power lines rated at 50kV or below?

  • 10 feet (3 meters)

  • Four feet (1.2 meters)

  • Six feet (1.8 meters)

  • 12 feet (3.7 meters)

Correct answer: 10 feet (3 meters)

The minimum required clearance between a crane or its load and power lines rated at 50kV or below is 10 feet (three meters). This distance is mandated to prevent accidental contact with power lines, which could lead to severe injury or death. 

A clearance of four feet or six feet is insufficient to ensure safety around power lines of this voltage. While 12 feet would be a safer distance, the specific minimum requirement set by regulations is 10 feet.

118.

Which of the following BEST describes the function of interlocking barrier guards in machinery safety?

  • Interlocking barrier guards prevent the machine from operating unless the guard is in a predetermined position, ensuring the operator cannot access the hazardous area.

  • Interlocking barrier guards are designed to detect the presence of an operator and automatically shut down the machine to prevent injury.

  • Interlocking barrier guards are fixed barriers that remain in place at all times to prevent access to hazardous areas of the machine.

  • Interlocking barrier guards are used to provide real-time feedback on machine performance and alert operators to potential issues.

Correct answer: Interlocking barrier guards prevent the machine from operating unless the guard is in a predetermined position, ensuring the operator cannot access the hazardous area.

Interlocking barrier guards function by preventing the machine from operating unless the guard is in a predetermined position, ensuring the operator cannot access the hazardous area. This safety feature ensures that the machine cannot be put into motion while the operator is exposed to potential hazards. 

Fixed barriers that remain in place at all times are not interlocking but rather standard guards.

Detecting the presence of an operator and automatically shutting down the machine describes presence-sensing devices, not interlocking barrier guards. 

Providing real-time feedback on machine performance and alerting operators to potential issues is a function of monitoring systems, not interlocking barrier guards.

119.

What distinguishes a preventable collision from a non-preventable collision according to fleet safety management practices?

  • A preventable collision is determined to have been avoidable by the driver, whereas a non-preventable collision is deemed unavoidable despite the driver’s best efforts.

  • A preventable collision involves severe injuries, while a non-preventable collision involves minor injuries.

  • A preventable collision results in significant vehicle damage, while a non-preventable collision results in minimal damage.

  • A preventable collision occurs during work hours, while a non-preventable collision occurs off-duty.

Correct answer: A preventable collision is determined to have been avoidable by the driver, whereas a non-preventable collision is deemed unavoidable despite the driver’s best efforts.

A preventable collision is one that the driver could have avoided by taking proper actions or following safe driving practices. This determination is based on the investigation and the driver’s account, which should reveal if the collision could have been prevented through better judgment or behavior.

Conversely, a non-preventable collision is deemed unavoidable even when the driver took all possible measures to avoid it. This classification helps in assessing the need for additional training and improving safety protocols to reduce future incidents. It is not based on the severity of injuries, the amount of damage, or the timing of the collision.

120.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three variables included in Kanfer's (1990) model of motivation?

  • The financial incentives offered

  • The direction of actions that will accomplish defined objectives

  • The intensity in the amount of personal thought given to the performance of goal-oriented actions

  • The persistence of effort in which desired performance lasts over time

Correct answer: The financial incentives offered

Kanfer's (1990) model of motivation includes the direction of actions that will accomplish defined objectives, the intensity in the amount of personal thought given to the performance of goal-oriented actions, and the persistence of effort in which desired performance lasts over time. 

Financial incentives, while important in many motivational theories, are not one of the three variables identified by Kanfer in this model.