Firefighter I II Exam Questions

Page 5 of 50

81.

A pump-tank water extinguisher is either hand-carried or contained in a backpack. This type of extinguisher can be used on what class of fire?

  • Class A only

  • Class B and C

  • Class A, B, and C

  • Class K only

Correct answer: Class A only

A pump-tank water extinguisher is designed for Class A fires only. Class A fires involve ordinary combustibles like paper, wood, cloth, and rubber. The water in the extinguisher cools the burning material, reducing its temperature below the ignition point to extinguish the fire. These extinguishers typically hold between 1.5 to 5 gallons of water, and their streams can reach distances of 30 to 40 feet.

Class B and C fires involve flammable liquids and electrical equipment, respectively. Water should never be used on these fires, as it can spread the flames in Class B fires and cause electrical shocks in Class C fires. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF), Halon, carbon dioxide, or dry chemical extinguishers are more suitable for these types of fires. Class A, B, and C multipurpose dry chemical extinguishers are capable of handling a wider range of fire types. Class K fires involve cooking oils and fats, requiring a wet chemical extinguisher to saponify the oils and prevent reignition.

82.

NFPA 1851 outlines four types of cleaning used for personal protective clothing (PPC). Which type of cleaning is performed by the manufacturer, a manufacturer's representative, or a certified vendor?

  • Contract cleaning

  • Routine cleaning

  • Advanced cleaning

  • Specialized cleaning

Correct answer: Contract cleaning

Contract cleaning refers to the cleaning of PPC performed by the manufacturer, a manufacturer's representative, or a certified vendor. This type of cleaning is typically done to ensure the thorough removal of contaminants that may not be addressed during routine or advanced cleaning.

Routine cleaning involves basic decontamination performed by the user, often at the incident scene, to remove surface dirt and grime. 

Advanced cleaning is performed by personnel who have been trained in the proper care and maintenance of PPC, providing a deeper cleaning than routine methods. 

Specialized cleaning is required when the PPC has been exposed to hazardous materials, chemical agents, or bodily fluids, and is conducted by trained personnel or a certified vendor with the proper expertise.

83.

Which part of a rope is used to tie a knot?

  • Working end

  • Running part

  • Standing part

  • Free end

Correct answer: Working end

The working end is the part of the rope used to tie a knot. It is the section manipulated during knot-tying to create the necessary loops and turns. The working end may also be referred to as the bitter end, especially when dealing with rigging or nautical contexts.

The running part is the section of the rope that is used for tasks like pulling or hoisting. It is often under tension and not involved in knot-tying. 

The standing part is the portion between the working end and the running part, and it remains stationary or less involved during knot-tying. 

The free end is another term for a loose or unused section of rope, but it is not specifically the part used for tying knots.

84.

Which operational assignment involves the "two in, two out" requirement?

  • Fire attack

  • Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)

  • Rehabilition

  • Overhaul

Correct answer: Fire attack

A Fire Attack is an operational assignment that involves the "two in, two out" requirement.

Decision to attack should be based on local SOPs and size-up. You may only assign a fire attack crew if you have enough personnel (two in, two out).

85.

After performing routine maintenance on an electrical generator that is carried on a fire apparatus, firefighters should perform a run test. Which of the following is most true about performing a run test on an electrical generator carried on a fire apparatus?

  • Never start the generator under load

  • Let the generator run for long periods without a load

  • Start the generator inside the fire station under controlled conditions

  • Test the output of the generator using a voltmeter

Correct answer: Never start the generator under load

Starting a generator under load can damage the control systems and the generator portion of the equipment. The generator should be started with no load applied and then plugging in various other electrical equipment to test the generator.

Running the generator for long periods without a load can damage the generator. 

Never run a generator inside a building or other enclosed space as the gasoline engine creates carbon monoxide that can reach dangerous levels in an enclosed area.

Testing of the generator output should only be done by trained technicians or qualified electricians.

86.

Visible flames may help firefighters determine which of the following?

  • Size and location of the fire

  • Temperature within the structure

  • Where the fire started

  • The type of extinguisher needed

Correct answer: Size and location of the fire

Visible flames may help firefighters determine the size and location of the fire. The visible flames may also help firefighters understand the ventilation needed and airflow within the structure. Firefighters should not use the visible flames as their sole source for assessing the incident.

Visible flames are not generally used to determine the temperature of the structure, where the fire started, or the type of extinguisher needed.

87.

Roof decking or sheathing is that portion of the roof system that lies between the roof supports and the roof covering. Which of the following is not a material usually found used as the decking or sheathing on a roof structure?

  • Steel plates

  • Tongue and groove wood

  • Plywood 

  • Reinforced concrete

Correct answer: Steel plates

Typically, roof decking is made up of plywood, OSB, tongue and groove wood, corrugated metal, or some form of concrete.

Steel plates are not used as roof decking because of the weight of the steel. 

88.

What is the most common type of residential fire alarm?

  • Single-station smoke alarm

  • Dual-station smoke alarm

  • Photoelectric smoke alarm

  • Ionization smoke detection

Correct answer: Single-station smoke alarm

Single-station smoke alarms are the most common type of residential fire alarm.

89.

What is the purpose of a Siamese valve device appliance? 

  • To combine multiple hose lines into one line

  • To divide a single hoseline into multiple lines

  • To control the flow from a hydrant

  • To access water from the main line at distribution points along the supply line

Correct answer: To combine multiple hose lines into one line

The purpose of a Siamese valve is to combine two or more hose lines into a single line. This is often used to increase water flow by combining water sources from different lines. The device typically has two or more female inlets and a single male outlet.

A Wye appliance performs the opposite function by dividing one hose line into multiple lines.

Controlling or regulating the flow from a hydrant is the job of a hydrant valve or gate valve, not a Siamese valve.

Tapping into water mains is typically done using different devices, such as hydrants or tapping valves.

90.

What is the Higbee indicator used for?

  • Aids in matching male and female couplings in low-visibility situations

  • Aids in identifying type of hose used

  • Aids in tightening non-threaded couplings

  • Aids in identifying large hose diameter

Correct answer: Aids in matching male and female couplings in low-visibility situations

The Higbee indicator is a small notch or mark on the exterior of threaded hose couplings that helps align the male and female threads. It prevents cross-threading by indicating where to start threading the two couplings together. This feature is particularly helpful in low-visibility situations or when firefighters need to connect hoses quickly without clear visual confirmation.

Hose type is generally identified by labeling or color, not by the Higbee indicator. Non-threaded couplings use a different locking mechanism, such as Storz connections, so the Higbee indicator is not used to tighten these types of couplings. The size of a large-diameter hose is usually labeled or determined visually, not by using the Higbee indicator.

91.

Roof supports generally fall into two types of construction. Beams and truss assemblies are the most used types of roof support construction. There are many types of these roof support structures. Which type of roof support structures are made from plywood and are often used with wood joints to support flat roofs or floors in a building?

  • Wide flange beams

  • Steel trusses

  • On site manufactured trusses

  • Gusset plates

Correct answer: Wide flange beams

Wide flange beams, also known as box beams or I-beams, are made with plywood. These types of support structures provide adequate strength for construction and occupancy purposes but are susceptible to fire damage and can fail early in a fire.

Steel trusses are not made with plywood.

On site manufactured trusses typically use dimensional lumber and not plywood.

Gusset plates are used to assemble wood trusses and are not considered a supporting structure.

92.

Which of the following factors influences the rate of fire spread?

  • Fuel moisture content

  • Solubility

  • Vapor density

  • Vapor pressure

Correct answer: Fuel moisture content

Fuel moisture content influences the rate of fire spread.

93.

Which type of shock is the result of a severe infection in the body?

  • Septic shock

  • Cardiogenic shock

  • Neurogenic shock

  • Hypovolemic shock

Correct answer: Septic shock

Sepsis is the result of a severe infection in the body. While these types of shock are not as commonly encountered as the types listed earlier, they are still dangerous and should be treated as true medical emergencies.

94.

NFPA 1983 sets specifications and requirements that rope manufacturers must meet. The NFPA 1983 standard also outlines conditions under which life safety rope can be returned to use. 

Which of the following is not a condition for returning a life safety rope to service?

  • Recertified by the manufacturer

  • No abrasions or visible damage

  • No exposure to heat or direct flame

  • No exposure to any impact load

Correct answer: Recertified by the manufacturer

 NFPA 1983 does not require life safety rope to be recertified by the manufacturer before it can be reused.

NFPA 1983 does specify that life safety rope must meet the following criteria:

  • No abrasions or visible damage
  • No exposure to heat or direct flame
  • No exposure to any impact load
  • No exposure to liquids, solids, gases, mists, or vapors of any chemical or other material that can deteriorate the rope

95.

Which commonly encountered bacterial infection causes issues with one’s respiratory system?

  • Tuberculosis

  • Hepatitis

  • HIV/AIDS

  • Multi-Drug-Resistant Organisms

Correct answer: Tuberculosis

Tuberculosis (TB) is a commonly encountered bacterial infection that causes issues with one’s respiratory system. TB is an airborne disease and is transmitted by infected individuals when droplets are produced when breathing or coughing.

Hepatitis is a commonly encountered communicable disease that causes inflammation of the liver. HIV/AIDS is a commonly encountered communicable disease that weakens the body’s immune system and doesn’t allow the body to fight off diseases. Multi-Drug-Resistant Organisms (MDRO) is a commonly encountered communicable disease easily spread and hard to control because it is unresponsive to normal antibiotic treatments.

96.

Which commonly encountered communicable disease causes inflammation of the liver?

  • Hepatitis

  • Tuberculosis

  • HIV/AIDS

  • Multi Drug-Resistant Organisms

Correct answer: Hepatitis

Hepatitis is a commonly encountered communicable disease that causes inflammation of the liver. There are four different types of Hepatitis: A, B, C, and D. Hepatitis can be caused by drugs, alcohol, chemicals, or heredity and is transmitted through food, water, blood, or other body fluids.

Tuberculosis is a commonly encountered communicable disease that causes issues with one’s respiratory system. HIV/AIDS is a commonly encountered communicable disease that weakens the body’s immune system and doesn’t allow the body to fight off diseases. Multi Drug-Resistant Organisms (MDRO) is a commonly encountered communicable disease easily spread and hard to control because it is unresponsive to normal antibiotic treatments.

97.

Fire extinguishers extinguish fires using four different methods. Which of the following options best describes the chemical flame inhibition method?

  • Interrupting the chemical chain reaction in the burning process

  • When the agent reduces the burning material’s temperature below its ignition temperature

  • When the agent excludes oxygen from the burning process

  • When the agent forms an oxygen-excluding soapy foam on the surface

Correct answer: Interrupting the chemical chain reaction in the burning process

The chemical flame inhibition method involves the extinguishing agent interrupting the chemical chain reaction in the fire’s combustion process. This method is commonly used in extinguishers containing dry chemicals or halogenated agents (clean agents) like Halon, which interfere with the combustion process at the molecular level to stop the fire from spreading. It is effective in Class B (flammable liquids) and Class C (electrical) fires.

The cooling method reduces the burning material's temperature below its ignition point, typically through the use of water or other cooling agents, and is not the mechanism described by chemical flame inhibition.

The smothering method involves cutting off oxygen to the fire, which is achieved by foam or carbon dioxide extinguishers that form a barrier between the fuel and the oxygen.

Saponification occurs when a chemical agent reacts with burning fats or oils, creating a soapy foam that excludes oxygen from the fire, primarily used in Class K (kitchen) fires.

98.

One part of the initial protective actions taken by first responders arriving at the scene of a hazmat incident is isolation and scene control. A perimeter should be established to prevent unauthorized access to and egress from the scene. What is the best term used to describe the area enclosed by this perimeter?

  • Isolation perimeter

  • No Go zone

  • Secure zone

  • Security perimeter

Correct answer: Isolation perimeter

The isolation perimeter is established to control entry to and exit from the immediate scene of the incident. This is done to prevent the spread of hazardous material outside this perimeter and to secure the scene from possible evidentiary contamination.

No Go zone, secure zone, and security perimeter are not terms used by the fire service to describe this area.

99.

Firefighters use a variety of cutting tools during their day-to-day operations. Which cutting tool would most likely be used to cut a ring from an individual’s finger?

  • Whizzer saw

  • Reciprocating saw

  • Rotary saw

  • Air chisel

Correct answer: Whizzer saw

A Whizzer saw is used to cut a ring from an individual’s finger. A Whizzer saw is a highly portable, lightweight cutting tool used to make delicate cuts.

A reciprocating saw is used to cut structural components on a vehicle. A rotary saw is used to cut wood, metal, or masonry utilizing different blades. An air chisel is used to break locks or remove rivets and bolts.

100.

What would pulsing smoke movement, little or no visible flames, and high heat indicate in a structure fire?

  • Backdraft

  • Rollover

  • Flashover

  • Fully developed stage

Correct answer: Backdraft

A pulsing smoke movement, little or no visible flames, and high heat would indicate a backdraft in a structure fire.