Firefighter I II Exam Questions

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101.

A firefighter is in the process of removing debris from a burnt structure. Which tool or piece of equipment would the firefighter most likely use to complete this task?

  • Carryall

  • Pike pole

  • Plaster hook

  • Thermal imager

Correct answer: Carryall

A firefighter would most likely use a carryall to remove debris from a burnt structure. A carryall is also used to carry water in order to immerse smoldering material. Buckets and tubs are also used to remove debris and to carry water.

A pike pole and a plaster hook are both used to open ceilings. A thermal imager is used to check for hot spots.

102.

What is webbing typically used for in the fire service?

  • For straps and harnesses in rescue applications

  • Knot tying

  • Creating mechanical advantage systems

  • Lowering a rescuer during operations

Correct answer: For straps and harnesses in rescue applications

Webbing is typically used in rescue applications for constructing straps and harnesses to secure individuals or equipment. Its flexibility and strength make it ideal for creating anchor points, securing victims, or connecting rescuers to a system.

Knot tying is a skill used in the fire service, but webbing's primary role is not to facilitate this, though webbing can be tied into knots for specific uses. Mechanical advantage systems are used for lifting or lowering loads with ropes, but webbing is not generally used to create such systems directly. 

Lowering a rescuer or rappeller involves ropes, but webbing itself is more often used for securing harnesses and anchoring points, not the primary tool for lowering.

103.

What is another name for a simplex channel that bypasses the repeater system?

  • Talk-around channel

  • Talk-about channel

  • Simple channel

  • Singular channel

Correct answer: Talk-around channel

Talk-around channel is another name for a simplex channel.

104.

Every home safety survey completed should be properly documented. The documentation of a home safety survey is important for all of the following reasons, with the exception of which choice?

  • The document may be published for the public record

  • The report may become part of a legal proceeding

  • The survey may be used to bring the occupancy back into compliance with local ordinances

  • Information collected may be compiled for statistical analysis and planning

Correct answer: The document may be published for the public record

While fire department safety surveys may be considered public records under some circumstances, publishing the findings from fire safety surveys, except as part of a comprehensive statistical study is not the usual practice. Fire department safety surveys may be used in the following ways:

  • As part of a legal proceeding
  • As evidence to force compliance with local ordinances
  • As statistical data for planning purposes

105.

A vehicle generally contains safety glass and tempered glass. Which of the following is true in regard to laminated safety glass?

  • It is most commonly used in windshields

  • It crumbles into chunks

  • It is a single sheet of laminated glass

  • It is generally used in side windows

Correct answer: It is most commonly used in windshields

Laminated safety glass is generally used in windshields and in some rear windows. Safety glass is composed of two sheets of glass laminated to a sheet of plastic in between them, which makes the glass a lot stronger and more resistant to shattering.

Tempered glass crumbles into chunks, not safety glass. Safety glass contains two sheets of laminated glass, not one. It is generally used in windshields and in rear windows, not side windows.

106.

Braid-on-braid rope is commonly used as a utility rope in firefighting. Which of the following best describes braid-on-braid rope?

  • Rope that consists of a braided core enclosed in a braided sheath

  • Rope that has a core composed of load-bearing strands with a protective shield over it

  • Rope that has several individual strands twisted together in groups

  • Rope that has strands uniformly intertwined

Correct answer: Rope that consists of a braided core enclosed in a braided sheath

Braid-on-braid rope consists of a braided core surrounded by a braided sheath, which distributes the rope’s strength equally between the core and the outer layer. This construction provides a combination of durability and flexibility, making it useful for utility purposes. The sheath protects the core from wear, while both layers contribute to the rope's overall strength.

Kernmantle rope has a core of load-bearing strands covered by a protective outer layer, but it is not braided-on-braid construction. Laid rope is constructed by twisting several strands together, which differs from the braided design of braid-on-braid. Braided rope intertwines strands but does not feature a separate core and sheath, which is a key characteristic of braid-on-braid rope.

107.

What is the primary function of a K-tool in forcible entry?

  • Remove lock cylinders

  • Remove locks with protective collars

  • Slide between double-swinging doors to disengage the lock

  • Depress the latch of an outward swinging door

Correct answer: Remove lock cylinders

 The K-tool is specifically designed to remove lock cylinders during forcible entry. It works by gripping the edges of the lock cylinder, allowing it to be pulled out with a prying tool like a Halligan. Once the cylinder is removed, the locking mechanism can be manipulated for access. K-tools are highly effective for gaining entry when the cylinder is intact but needs to be removed to bypass the lock.

An A-tool, which resembles the K-tool but has a more aggressive design, is better suited for locks with protective collars.

A J-tool is designed for double-swinging doors, allowing it to slide between the doors and disengage the panic hardware. 

A shove knife is used to depress the latch of outward-swinging doors, typically for non-destructive entry.

108.

What are the bonnets, barrels, and footpieces of fire hydrants made of? 

  • Cast iron

  • Bronze

  • Composite material

  • Rubber

Correct answer: Cast iron

Cast iron is the primary material used for the bonnets, barrels, and footpieces of fire hydrants due to its strength, durability, and resistance to corrosion. Cast iron components are crucial for ensuring the hydrant can withstand external forces and environmental factors, making it the standard material for these key parts.

Bronze is commonly used for the internal working parts of fire hydrants, such as valve stems, due to its resistance to wear and corrosion. However, it is not used for the external components like bonnets or barrels.

Composite materials are sometimes used in certain parts of fire hydrants, such as valve facings, but not for structural components like bonnets or barrels.

Rubber is used in seals and gaskets within the fire hydrant but not for the main structural components.

109.

Using masks when performing emergency medical tasks on any patient is a good idea to prevent the transfer of possible communicable diseases. In general, surgical masks provide an adequate level of protection for firefighters. However, some communicable diseases such as tuberculosis require a greater level of respiratory protection than can be provided by a simple surgical mask. Which of the following best describes the type of mask that should be used if a patient is suspected of having tuberculosis?

  • N-95 respirators

  • ANSI masks

  • ISO masks

  • SCBA

Correct answer: N-95 respirators

N-95 respirators are designed to protect those wearing these masks from viruses such as tuberculosis that are airborne. In many instances, even greater protection can be found by fitting the patient with a mask as well.

ANSI masks and ISO masks are not descriptors or identifiers of respiratory protection.

SCBA will certainly protect you from airborne contamination, but should not be used when performing emergency medical responses.

110.

Upon arriving at the scene of a hazmat incident involving the spill of a liquid that has formed a pool on an asphalt surfaced parking lot, which of the following is not one of the spill control tactics that might be employed in this situation?

  • Vacuuming

  • Absorption

  • Adsorption

  • Neutralization

Correct answer: Vacuuming

Vacuuming is only recommended in the case of a solid that has been released into a pile and then should be performed carefully to prevent further dispersion of the material. Vacuuming is never recommended for hazardous liquid spills that have formed a pool.

Absorption, adsorption, and industrialization are the recommended methods of dealing with a liquid spill that has formed a pool.

111.

In most jurisdictions, the professional qualifications for firefighters are based on which of the following?

  • National Fire Protection Association standard 1001

  • National Fire Protection Association standard 1582

  • National Fire Protection Association standard 472

  • National Fire Protection Association standard 1002

Correct answer: National Fire Protection Association standard 1001

In most fire jurisdictions in the US, the professional qualifications for all firefighters are based on the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standard 1001 titled Standard for Firefighter Professional Qualifications. It establishes the basic requirements for the two levels of a firefighter (I and II).

The NFPA standard 1582 establishes the standards of the comprehensive occupational medical program for fire departments. It doesn't establish the basic requirements for firefighters. 

NFPA standard 472 sets the basic standards for responding to hazardous material or weapons of mass destruction incidents.

 NFPA standard 1002 sets the standard for operators of fire apparatus, not the basic qualifications for firefighters.

112.

When sending a MAYDAY broadcast, personnel typically use the acronym LUNAR to organize the broadcasted radio message. What does the "R" in the LUNAR acronym stand for?

  • Resources needed

  • Rapid intervention crew (RIC)

  • Radio traffic

  • Report

Correct answer: Resources needed

LUNAR:

  • Location
  • Unit
  • Name
  • Assignment and Air supply
  • Resources needed

The "R" in the LUNAR acronym stands for "Resources needed." During a MAYDAY broadcast, the firefighter in distress needs to communicate what resources, such as personnel or equipment, are required to assist in the rescue.

While the RIC is often involved in firefighter rescue operations, the acronym LUNAR focuses on the specific information relayed by the firefighter during the MAYDAY. Radio traffic refers to general radio communications, not a specific component of LUNAR.
"Report" does not fit the defined elements of the acronym.

113.

 Which NFPA Standard covers the design, performance, and maintenance of SCBA (self-contained breathing apparatus) used by emergency services personnel?

 

  • NFPA 1981

  • NFPA 1982

  • NFPA 1851

  • NFPA 1971

Correct answer: NFPA 1981

The National Fire Protection Association Standard 1981 sets the standard for open-circuit, self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) for emergency services. It sets the requirements for the proper maintenance and replacement of SCBA.

NFPA 1851 is the National Fire Protection Association's "Standard for Selection, Care, and Maintenance of Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting." It doesn't refer to the proper maintenance and replacement of personal protective gear and self-contained breathing apparatus within the department.

NFPA 1975 is the National Fire Protection Association's "Standard on Emergency Services Work Clothing Elements." It doesn't refer to the maintenance of SCBA and safety equipment.

NFPA 1971 sets requirements for protective ensembles worn during structural and proximity firefighting operations, which do not involve SCBA.

114.

A fire hose with a jacket made from a natural fiber such as cotton can be susceptible to damage from mildew, mold, and fungus. This can cause the natural fibers of the hose jacket to rot and weaken if the hose is stored wet. 

What is this type of damage to a fire hose jacket?

  • Organic damage

  • Thermal damage

  • Mechanical damage

  • Synthetic damage

Correct answer: Organic damage

Organic damage refers to the degradation of natural fibers, such as cotton, due to biological agents like mildew, mold, or fungus. These organisms thrive in damp conditions and break down the fibers, leading to the weakening of the hose structure.

Thermal damage results from exposure to extreme heat or cold, which can affect the hose's integrity but is unrelated to mold or mildew.

Mechanical damage occurs when physical forces such as cuts, abrasions, or impacts harm the hose. This is not related to biological factors.

Synthetic damage is not a recognized term in fire service vocabulary. Synthetic hoses, which are man-made materials, are not subject to the same biological threats as natural fiber hoses.

115.

Which of the following is not part of the assessment of a vehicle incident scene size-up?

  • Is there a collapse risk?

  • Are the vehicles located on the roadway?

  • How many victims are there, and what is their status?

  • Is there a potential for a vehicle fire?

Correct answer: Is there a collapse risk?

In the context of assessing a vehicle incident scene, all of the options are important considerations, but they each address different aspects of the situation.

Is there a potential for a vehicle fire?

This is a critical question in the assessment of a vehicle incident scene. Fire risk assessment is essential for ensuring the safety of victims, responders, and bystanders. It involves checking for signs of fire, fuel leaks, or any condition that might lead to a fire.

Are the vehicles located on the roadway?

Determining the location of the vehicles is important for understanding the impact on traffic and the potential risk to other road users. It also helps in planning for vehicle stabilization and extrication efforts.

How many victims are there, and what is their status?

This is a crucial part of the initial size-up, as it helps prioritize actions based on the number of victims and the severity of their conditions. Victim assessment is fundamental to triage and determines the level of resources required at the scene.

Is there a collapse risk?

While collapse risk is a primary concern in structural fire and rescue scenarios, it might be less directly relevant to a typical vehicle incident. However, if the incident involves structures (e.g., a vehicle crashing into a building), or there are large vehicles involved (such as trucks that might tip over), assessing the risk of collapse can be crucial for responder safety and determining the approach to victim rescue.

This is generally less directly related to a standard vehicle incident scene unless specific conditions (like those involving structures or large vehicles) make it a relevant concern. The collapse risk assessment is more commonly associated with structural emergencies rather than typical vehicle incidents. However, it's essential to consider that every incident has unique aspects, and a comprehensive size-up will evaluate all potential risks, including those less common for the scenario.

116.

What are the three determining factors for the tool setup to stabilize a vehicle that is resting on its side or roof?

  • The condition and weight of the vehicle, the stability of the soil, and the condition of the victims

  • Make and model of the vehicle, stability of the victims, and the condition of the soil

  • Number of vehicles involved, passenger compartment orientation, and the stability of the soil

  • Number of victims, year and model of car, and the type of emergency apparatus responding to the scene

Correct answer: The condition and weight of the vehicle, the stability of the soil, and the condition of the victims

A tensioned buttress system stabilizes vehicles resting on their sides or roofs. It may consist of one or more posts wedged between the ground and vehicle, or it may be a commercial system composed of metal rods and straps. The condition and weight of the vehicle, the stability of the soil, and the condition of the victims determine the number of posts needed and their placement.

117.

When using a Supplied Air Respirator on the scene of a hazardous materials incident, what is the maximum length of hose that may be used with the respirator?

  • 300 feet

  • 250 feet

  • 350 feet

  • 300 meters

Correct answer: 300 feet

When using a Supplied Air Respirator (SAR) as part of a hazardous materials response, the supply hose may only be up to 300 feet in length.   

Any longer length of hose is not approved. Shorter hoses may be used, but 300 feet is the maximum length of hose that should be used with an SAR.

118.

What type of extinguishing agents are particularly effective for computer room and aircraft engine fires?

  • Halons

  • CO2

  • Aqueous film-forming foam

  • Dry chemicals

Correct answer: Halons

Halons are effective for computer room and aircraft engine fires because they interrupt the chemical reactions that sustain combustion without causing damage to sensitive equipment. They are particularly valued in spaces with delicate electronics due to their non-conductive properties and ability to leave no residue.

CO2 is commonly used for electrical fires, as it suffocates the fire by displacing oxygen, but it is less effective than Halons in certain enclosed environments like aircraft engines and computer rooms.

Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF) is typically used for fuel and hydrocarbon fires, but it is not suitable for use in electrical or computer environments, as it conducts electricity and leaves a residue that can damage sensitive electronics.

Dry chemicals are effective for a variety of fire types but can leave a residue that damages sensitive equipment like computers and aircraft electronics, making them less ideal for these types of fires.

119.

Which of the following is an ominous sign of death in a deceased individual in which the muscles cause the body to be stiff and difficult to move and begins within a few hours of death?

  • Rigor mortis

  • Dependent lividity

  • Central cyanosis

  • Lethargy

Correct answer: Rigor mortis

Rigor mortis is an ominous sign of death that begins to become evident within a couple of hours following a person's death and continues to some degree for several days. It causes the victim's muscles and joints to become very stiff and hard to manipulate. Victims of sudden cardiac arrest that are found to have rigor mortis are not candidates for CPR since they have been deceased for at least 2 hours in most cases.

Dependent lividity occurs when the heart and blood circulation stops. What normally happens at this point is that the blood supply, or at least any blood that remains within the vascular space, will settle in the lowest possible space as a direct result of gravity. Therefore, if a deceased person is found laying on their right side, you can expect the discoloration from lividity to be found on the right side of the body. Central cyanosis is a term used to describe a blue discoloration to the skin as a result of oxygen deprivation. It does not cause any type of muscle or joint stiffness. Lethargy is a symptom that causes you to feel sleepy or fatigued and sluggish. This sluggishness may be in terms of movements or in thinking. However, it doesn't occur after death and doesn't cause muscle and joint stiffness.

120.

Which of the following best describes airflow in regard to a structural fire?

  • Movement of air toward the fire and the movement of smoke outside of the structure

  • Movement of smoke toward the fire and the movement of air outside of the structure

  • Pressure differentials outside and inside of the burning structure

  • Density differences between cooler air and the hot smoke from the structural fire

Correct answer: Movement of air toward the fire and the movement of smoke outside of the structure

In regard to a structural fire, airflow is best described as the movement of air toward the fire and the movement of smoke outside of the structure.

The pressure differentials outside and inside of the burning structure and the density differences between the cooler air and the hot smoke from the structural fire are the causes behind airflow movement. Movement of smoke toward the fire and the movement of air outside of the structure is incorrect because airflow is the movement of air toward the fire and the movement of smoke outside of the structure.