NSCA-CPT Exam Questions

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121.

A client wants to complete a half marathon (13.1 miles) in two hours or fewer. Which of the following would represent an appropriate pace/tempo workout for this client?

  • Running for twenty minutes at 7 miles per hour

  • Running for three hours at 5 miles per hour

  • Running for twenty minutes at 6 miles per hour

Correct answer: Running for twenty minutes at 7 miles per hour

Running for twenty minutes at 7 miles per hour is correct because this is an appropriate period of time to run at a pace slightly faster than the client's desired race pace. Pace/tempo training is typically performed for 20 to 30 minutes, and this duration can be completed either intermittently or steadily. Intermittent training would include 3- to 5-minute work bouts with 30 to 90 second rest periods.

Running for three hours at 5 miles per hour is incorrect because this is an example of long, slow distance training. Running for twenty minutes at 6 miles per hour is incorrect because this exercise intensity is not high enough for this client.

122.

All the following are common defenses for personal trainers accused of negligence in a lawsuit except:

  • Client completion of a client-trainer agreement

  • Proof that the client agreed they were properly informed of the risks of exercise testing and training

  • Client completion of an assumption of risk form

Correct answer: Client completion of a client-trainer agreement 

When a personal trainer is accused of negligence in a lawsuit, the following four actions are commonly used as a defense strategy:

  1. Proof that the personal trainer followed the industry standards and guidelines when assessing and training the client
  2. Proof that the client was properly informed of and understood the risks of participation in the activities included in the assessment and in personal training sessions prior to participation. A signed informed consent form may provide this proof.
  3. Proof that the client assumed the risk of participation (typically through an assumption of risk form) and voluntarily participated in the activity
  4. A signed waiver or release of liability that was completed before training began

A client-trainer agreement includes details regarding things such as:

  • expectations of the client and the trainer
  • number of training sessions planned per week and timeline of delivery
  • description of planned services
  • program cost, including payment terms and process
  • cancelation policy

Although this agreement provides a legal contract regarding the agreement between the trainer and the client, it is typically not used as a defense against negligence claims.

123.

Not allowing sufficient recovery from speed training sessions could lead to many different negative outcomes. Which of the following is not likely to happen as a result of not allowing sufficient recovery?

  • An increased maximum heart rate

  • Decreased coordination

  • Decreased overall running speed

  • Adaptations to slower speeds

Correct answer: An increased maximum heart rate

Max heart rate is generally determined by one's age, and it is not a trainable variable.

Insufficient recovery from speed training can lead to decreased coordination, decreased overall speed, and bodily adaptations to running at slower speeds. Coaches and trainers should allow 24 to 48 hours of rest between sessions.

124.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of outcome goals?

  • Have a high amount of personal control

  • Are exemplified by social comparison

  • Have less probability of success than process goals

Correct answer: Have a high amount of personal control

Have a high amount of personal control is correct because outcome goals actually have a low amount of personal control. The effort and the process to achieve the goals can be guaranteed, but the outcome itself cannot. A combination of process and outcome goals is advised to provide motivation for physical activity while providing direction for that activity.

Are exemplified by social comparison and have less probability of success than process goals are incorrect because these are characteristics of outcome goals.

125.

Your client tells you that he just had a fasting blood glucose test performed. His results indicate that he had a reading of 120 mg/dl. Which of the following is true regarding this client's CVD risk based on this reading?

  • This client is at risk for CVD.

  • This client is not at risk for CVD.

  • It is impossible to know whether this client is at risk for CVD based on this reading.

  • As a man, this client is not at risk based on this reading, however, if a woman had the same reading, she would be at risk for CVD.

Correct answer: This client is at risk for CVD.

A fasting blood glucose greater than 100 mg/dl puts clients at risk for CVD.

This test does not discriminate between female and male clients.

126.

In a fitness facility, approximately how many linear feet will be required to allow four members to perform dumbbell biceps curls beside each other?

  • 31 feet

  • 12 feet

  • 43 feet

Correct answer: 31 feet

31 feet is correct because three additional feet of space is needed at each end of the line of exercisers, and three feet are required between each lifter. Each lifter should be given four linear feet of space. (4x4) + (3x3) + (2x3) = 31 feet.

12 feet is incorrect because this does not allow any safety space cushion between each lifter. 43 feet is incorrect because a lifter with dumbbells does not require the same linear space as a lifter with a barbell.

127.

When using a stationary bike for aerobic conditioning, to where should the seat height be adjusted when the client is standing next to the bicycle?

  • Mid-hip level

  • Mid-thigh level

  • Belly button level

Correct answer: Mid-hip level

Mid-hip level is correct as this will typically allow the client to have a knee slightly bent with the ball of their foot on the pedal when the leg is extended down. Stationary bikes are useful for clients who are overweight or have orthopedic problems, since they are non-weight bearing. However, using this piece of equipment can be limited by local muscular fatigue instead of the cardiovascular system.

Mid-thigh level is incorrect because this is too low and would result in the leg not being extended when the pedal is at its lowest point. Belly button level is incorrect because this is too high and the foot may not reach the pedal when the pedal is at its lowest point.

128.

All the following are symptoms of aerobic endurance overtraining except:

  • Decreased body fat

  • Altered resting heart rate

  • Increased oxygen uptake at submaximal exercise levels

Correct answer: Decreased body fat

Decreased body fat is correct because changes in body composition and body mass are symptoms of resistance exercise overtraining. Aerobic endurance overtraining generally arises due to excessive training volume and is characterized by parasympathetic dominance. A long period of rest is the most effective cure for this condition.

Altered resting heart rate is incorrect because resting heart rate typically decreases as a result of aerobic endurance overtraining. Increased oxygen uptake at submaximal exercise levels is incorrect because increased heart rate at submaximal exercise is a symptom, and heart rate and oxygen uptake are linearly related.

129.

In general, which of the following foods is likely to provide the most amount of protein per calorie? 

  • Chicken breast

  • Meat-lovers pizza

  • Ice cream

Correct answer: Chicken breast

Chicken breast is high in protein and contains some fat. However, it contains a negligible amount of calories from carbs.

Meat-lovers pizza provides a decent amount of protein, but it contains many calories from carbs and fats as well. Ice cream contains some protein, but it provides many more calories in the form of carbs and fats.

130.

Which of the following is the most valid measurement of maximum lower body strength in a client?

  • One repetition maximum leg press

  • Five repetition maximum leg press

  • Vertical jump

Correct answer: One repetition maximum leg press

One repetition maximum leg press is correct because a one repetition strength has very high face validity in that this test measures the exact ability it is designed to measure. No estimations are made by determining the results of this test. However, this test must also be reliable and have a standard operating procedure.

Five repetition maximum leg press is incorrect because this is an estimation of maximal strength. Vertical jump is incorrect because this is a measure of muscular power.

131.

All the following are considerations when buying home exercise equipment, except:

  • How easy it is to store away when not in use

  • The durability of the equipment

  • The needs of the client

Correct answer: How easy it is to store away when not in use

Personal trainers warn against buying equipment that is easily dismantled and stored out of sight, as this can create a barrier to exercise.

Durability and the needs of the client are important aspects to consider when buying home exercise equipment.

132.

If a fitness facility has 5,000 members, what is a good estimate, based on common practices used in the health and fitness industry, of the number of facility users in any given two-hour period?

  • Approximately 415

  • Approximately 1,250

  • Approximately 1,670

Correct answer: Approximately 415

Approximately 415 is correct because this is determined by the common practice of assuming that approximately 25% of clients will choose a two-hour window and approximately 33% of that 25% will be daily users. 25% of 5,000 is 1,250, and 33% of 1,250 is 412.5, or about 415 users. The facility can then use standards of each type of equipment to determine the number of each type to have in the facility.

Approximately 1,250 is incorrect because this does not account for the number of clients who will be daily users. Approximately 1,670 is incorrect because this does not account for 25% of the members who will be in the facility in any one two-hour window.

133.

What is the maximal external resistance that should be provided during resisted sprints?

  • 10%

  • 25%

  • 20%

  • 5%

Correct answer: 10%

External resistance beyond 10% may negatively impact sprinting mechanics, negating the effectiveness of the drill. Less than this is acceptable, more than this should be used with extreme caution.

134.

When a client is training aerobically, which of the following actions can offset the lack of air resistance to equalize the energy cost between outside and treadmill running?

  • Increase treadmill grade to 1%

  • Increase treadmill speed by 1 mph

  • Hold the handrails

Correct answer: Increase treadmill grade to 1%

Increase treadmill grade to 1% is correct, as this allows a client to run at the same speed on a treadmill as they would outdoors while maintaining the same energy cost. The advantage of treadmill running is that it can control running speed and elevation. In addition, the landing surface is much softer, reducing the impact forces associated with foot strike.

Increase treadmill speed by 1 mph is incorrect because this will increase the energy cost too much. Hold the handrails is incorrect because this would further decrease the energy cost of treadmill running.

135.

A 20-year-old client has been cleared to return to personal training after a shoulder dislocation. Which of the following exercises would be recommended to include in this client's program without modification?

  • Prone shoulder extension

  • Pec deck

  • Push-up

Correct answer: Prone shoulder extension

Younger clients who experience shoulder dislocation have a 90% chance of redislocation. Adults middle-aged and older have a 30 to 50% chance of redislocation. Therefore, it's crucial to be aware of and avoid movements that place the shoulder at risk. Dislocation creates instability, which needs to be addressed.

Exercises that strengthen the rotator cuff, such as the prone shoulder extension, should be a regular portion of the training program for someone with a history of shoulder dislocation. In addition, these individuals should include exercises for scapular strengthening and shoulder stabilization.

It is contraindicated to raise the arm above shoulder level or to move the arm behind the body's frontal plane (behind the body), as these are increasingly unstable positions for the shoulder.

Exercises such as push-ups, the pec deck, and the bench press might be appropriate for these individuals but only if done with specific modifications. The push-ups and bench press should be performed with a close grip, and the last 10 to 20 degrees of shoulder extension should be avoided in all three movements, thus preventing the arm from traveling behind the body.

The overhead movement pattern used in freestyle swimming is also contraindicated for these individuals, as it raises the arm above shoulder level.

136.

Which of the following exercises is important for a client to master before progressing to tire flips?

  • Deadlift

  • Bench press

  • Leg press

  • Push press

Correct answer: Deadlift

Deadlifts are an important prerequisite for tire flips. This free weight exercise mimics the beginning portion of the tire flip, and having a good deadlift or sumo deadlift form can help to prevent injury in clients who perform tire flipping exercises.

Bench presses, leg presses, and push presses can all help with portions of the tire flip, but the deadlift transfers most directly to the movement.

137.

You are planning on implementing a plyometric training program for a new client. Which of the following is not considered a minimum requirement for starting a plyometric training program?

  • Ability to squat 2 times one's body weight

  • Three or more months of resistance training

  • Absence of injuries in body regions used during movement

  • Adequate strength, speed, and balance for the drill in question

Correct answer: Ability to squat 2 times one's body weight

There is no requirement that clients be able to squat twice their body weight before initiating plyometric training.

The minimum requirements for patients to take part in a plyometric workout program include:

  1. Proper performance of the drill
  2. Three or more months of resistance training
  3. Adequate strength, speed, and balance for the drill in question
  4. Absence of injuries in body regions used during movement

138.

A novice lifter attempts to perform a bicep curl with an extremely heavy weight. Which of the following structures would be most likely to limit her ability to complete this movement?

  • Golgi tendon organ

  • Muscle spindle

  • Musculotendonous junction

  • Motor unit

Correct answer: Golgi tendon organ

The Golgi tendon organ, or GTO, is located within the tendons of the body. This structure is responsible for detecting excessive force on a muscle or tendon and inhibiting said muscle from contracting in order to prevent tearing. Thus, this lifter would likely be limited by the GTO reflex.

The muscle spindle is responsible for detecting excessive stretch in tissue and inhibiting said muscle from stretching too far, too quickly. The musculotendonous junction is the area where a muscle meets a tendon. The motor unit is a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates.

139.

Which of the following metabolic actions increases in response to chronic aerobic training?

  • Fat utilization

  • Lactate accumulation

  • Resting metabolic rate

Correct answer: Fat utilization

Fat utilization is correct because the adaptations that enhance the ability to produce ATP aerobically facilitate increased fatty acid use for energy during submaximal exercise. These adaptations include increased oxygen delivery, oxygen use by the mitochondria, and aerobic enzyme activity. This is reflected in decreases in the respiratory quotient during submaximal exercise.

Lactate accumulation is incorrect because this is decreased as a result of aerobic training. Resting metabolic rate is incorrect because this does not change as a result of aerobic training.

140.

Which of the following is not included in a physician referral form?

  • An exercise training program

  • Assessment of the client's functional capacity

  • A classification of the client's ability to participate

Correct answer: An exercise training program

An exercise training program is correct because the physician referral form will include recommendations and guidelines for the exercise program, but not the exercise program itself. The physician's referral form is used to obtain information about the client's health status, physical limitations, and exercise restrictions. This form and the physician's medical clearance should be obtained for any moderate or high-risk client.

Assessment of the client's functional capacity and a classification of the client's ability to participate are incorrect because these should be included within a physician's referral form.