NSCA-CPT Exam Questions

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141.

Which of the following is not a principle of effective goal setting?

  • Short-term goals are more important than long-term goals

  • Clients should play an active role in setting goals

  • Goals should incorporate a timeline of some sort

Correct answer: Short-term goals are more important than long-term goals 

Short-term goals and long-term goals are equally important. Short-term goals should be set in order to achieve longer-term ones. 

Clients and trainers should work collaboratively on goals so that the client feels a sense of ownership over their health goals. Goals need to contain a timeframe for starting and completion. 

142.

Increases in muscle hypertrophy are due to which of the following factors?

I. Increase in myofibril size

II. Increase in protein synthesis

III. Increase in myofibril number

IV. Increase in protein degradation

  • I, II, and III only

  • I and IV only

  • II and III only

Correct answer: I, II, and III only

I, II, and III only is correct because these all occur as a result of chronic resistance training. The increase in myofibril number is thought to be the result of the splitting of existing myofibrils into "daughter" myofibrils. This increase in cross-sectional area is associated with an increase in the number of actin and myosin filaments, which are the contractile proteins in muscle, resulting in improved strength and power.

I and IV only is incorrect because protein degradation (as a net process) decreases as a result of resistance training. II and III only is incorrect because an increase in myofibril size also contributes to increased muscle cross-sectional area.

143.

All the following are guidelines for training clients with a spinal cord injury (SCI) except:

  • Individuals with SCI should not perform aerobic exercise over 30% maximal oxygen uptake.

  • Individuals with SCI should monitor their blood pressure during exercise.

  • Individuals with SCI should avoid exercise within 2 to 3 hours after a meal.

Correct answer: Individuals with SCI should not perform aerobic exercise over 30% maximal oxygen uptake.

It's important for individuals who have a spinal cord injury who are interested in exercise to follow specific guidelines and take additional precautions to ensure safety.

Due to inefficient venous return, individuals with SCI are prone to exercise-induced hypotension, especially in seated positions. Therefore, it is necessary to regularly monitor blood pressure during exercise.

Eating too close to a workout can result in digestion interfering with delivering blood flow to the working muscles, which can lead to gastrointestinal issues. These individuals should eat 2 to 3 hours prior to exercise.

Heart rate is not a great indicator of intensity in an individual with SCI. Therefore, it's best to use Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE) as an alternative.

Individuals with SCI should begin cardiovascular training at a moderate intensity: 40 to 60% of maximal oxygen uptake (VO2max) and then progress to performing 30 minutes per day, four or more days per week of aerobic exercise.

144.

According to the NSCA's Safety Checklist for Exercise Facility and Equipment Maintenance, all the following are recommended to be done on a daily basis except:

  • Clean/wipe down the walls

  • Clean and disinfect the drinking fountain

  • Clean and disinfect stretching mats

Correct answer: Clean/wipe down the walls

It's important to adhere to the recommended schedule for cleaning and disinfecting as well as other equipment and facility maintenance for health and safety. The following should be done every day:

  • Clean and disinfect stretching mats, upholstery on exercise machines, and any equipment surfaces that are touched by skin
  • Clean and disinfect the drinking fountain
  • Clean windows and mirrors
  • Check for damage to equipment, mirrors, places where equipment is connected to the floor, machine and protective pads, and non-slip surfaces
  • Empty garbage
  • Return all equipment to the correct storage location

The following are examples of tasks that should be completed 2 to 3 times per week or as needed:

  • Clean and lubricate the necessary parts on resistance and cardiovascular training machines
  • Clean/wipe down the walls
  • Repair or remove broken equipment
  • Clean bar knurling
  • Replace light bulbs

145.

A 23-year-old male has a BMI of 31 but shows no signs of hypertension, dyslipidemia, or metabolic disease and has no family history of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following types of programs is he recommended to participate in?

  • Unsupervised program

  • Supervised program

  • Medically supervised program

Correct answer: Unsupervised program

Unsupervised program is correct because this client, with only one risk factor, could be considered low risk. Physical activity would greatly benefit this individual. A combination of one or two weekly training sessions with a personal trainer with prescribed or self-directed unsupervised sessions is recommended for this client.

Supervised program and medically supervised program are incorrect because this client is at low risk and does not require this level of intervention.

146.

You are designing a program for an older adult. You are concerned that this client may not be practicing proper breathing during resistance training. Which of the following breathing cues is most appropriate?

  • Breathe in on the eccentric and out through the concentric

  • Breathe naturally

  • Breathe in on the concentric and out through the eccentric

  • Take a sharp breath in, complete the rep, then take a sharp breath out

Correct answer: Breathe in on the eccentric and out through the concentric

Most clients can be told to breathe naturally during exercise. However, older clients are at increased risk for cardiovascular events, so they should be encouraged to inhale during eccentric contractions and exhale during concentric contractions.

Taking sharp breaths and holding the breath during the rep may lead to a Valsalva maneuver, which could put the client at risk for cardiovascular events.

147.

The depletion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) during training is classified as what type of acute adaptation (change)?

  • Muscular change

  • Endocrine change

  • Neurological change

Correct answer: Muscular change

Adenosine TriphosPhate (ATP) is the molecule that carries and provides energy for all activity. ATP is stored within muscle tissue and is depleted with activity. Therefore, the depletion of this fuel substrate is considered to be a muscular change and contributes to muscular fatigue. 

Endocrine changes involve changes in hormones, including testosterone and growth hormone. Neurological changes include changes in the activation of motor units. Changes in bone density and connective tissue strength are considered structural changes.

148.

You are educating your client on how to progress his exercise program. You decide that the two-for-two rule will be the best option for him. Which of the following best describes this method of progression?

  • Training with a given load until the goal rep range is surpassed by two reps on two consecutive exercise sessions

  • Adding two pounds to two exercises during each lifting session

  • Adding two pounds to each exercise after two weeks of the client exceeding the prescribed rep range

  • Increasing the weight so that the client can only perform two reps, then slowly decreasing the weight by two pounds until the client can perform ten reps

Correct answer: Training with a given load until the goal rep range is surpassed by two reps on two consecutive exercise sessions

The two-for-two rule is a traditional method of progression that can be easily used by all clients. It states that when the client can complete two reps or more higher than the prescribed rep range, for two workouts in a row, the weight should be increased until they fall back within the prescribed rep range.

149.

Which of the following individuals would require the greatest amount of rest between sets during their exercise sessions?

  • A powerlifter looking to increase their one-rep max

  • A volleyball player looking to increase their endurance during matches

  • A wrestler struggling to keep up as matches go for longer periods

Correct answer: A powerlifter looking to increase their one-rep max

Training intensity/load is a big factor in the need for rest between sets. The higher the intensity (greater the load), the more rest is needed to make the program effective. Training for increases in maximum strength requires the use of heavier loads than when training for muscular endurance or hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is the same thing as building muscle tissue.

Both the wrestler and the volleyball player have goals to increase their cardiovascular and muscular endurance. Therefore, they should have shorter rest times between sets than would the powerlifter, who should be relatively fresh before each heavy effort. 

150.

Which of the following exercises has the common movement error of flexing the torso during the downward movement phase?

  • Triceps pushdown

  • Bent knee sit-up

  • Bench press

Correct answer: Triceps pushdown

Triceps pushdown is correct because this exercise's concentric contraction occurs during the downward movement phase. A common error would be to flex the torso to provide movement or assistance to the triceps muscles performing the exercise. The triceps pushdown uses a cable machine.

Bent knee sit-up is incorrect because the correct technique involves flexing the torso during the upward movement phase. Bench press is incorrect because the client is lying supine, and therefore, it would be difficult to flex the torso during the downward movement.

151.

Which of the following is the minimum requirement for an individual to be considered not leading a sedentary lifestyle?

  • 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity three days per week for three months

  • 60 minutes of moderate intensity activity three days per week for three months

  • 30 minutes of light activity four days per week for four months

Correct answer: 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity three days per week for three months

30 minutes of moderate intensity activity three days per week for three months is correct because this fits within the guidelines of the U.S. Surgeon General. Not participating in this amount of physical activity would be considered a sedentary lifestyle and is a positive risk factor for coronary artery disease. This is a minimum recommendation, and a greater duration, intensity, or frequency would only benefit an individual.

60 minutes of moderate intensity activity three days per week for three months is incorrect because this duration is longer than the minimum. 30 minutes of light activity four days per week for four months is incorrect because the frequency and total duration are longer than the required minimum.

152.

Which of the following would create a negative calorie balance?

  • Decreasing calorie intake and increasing exercise

  • Increasing calorie intake and decreasing exercise

  • Increasing calorie intake and increasing exercise

  • There is no such thing as a negative calorie balance

Correct answer: Decreasing calorie intake and increasing exercise

Calories are the body's energy source. In order to create a negative calorie balance, one must take in fewer calories from food than one expends through exercise and metabolic processes.

The reverse is also true for a positive calorie balance, where an individual takes in more calories through food than one expends through exercise and metabolic processes.

153.

Which of the following is the best description of a test that is valid?

  • A test that provides similar results to those obtained from a gold standard test

  • A test that provides similar results no matter who is administering it

  • A test that provides similar results no matter who the client is

  • A test that provides similar results when the same administrator conducts the test multiple times in the same way

Correct answer: A test that provides similar results to those obtained from a gold standard test

The validity of a test refers to its ability to accurately reflect the results as they relate to results obtained from a gold standard test for the metric in question.

All of the other options are better descriptions of different types of reliability, not necessarily validity.

154.

Which of the following is true of the seated machine calf raise as compared to the standing machine calf raise?

  • The seated position will change the relative contributions of the gastrocnemius muscle and soleus muscles to the plantar flexion motion.

  • The seated position will involve the hamstrings in the motion, while they are inactive during standing calf raises.

  • The standing position will allow the quads to help complete the movement, while they are relatively inactive during the seated calf raise.

  • There is no difference between the seated and standing calf raise.

Correct answer: The seated position will change the relative contributions of the gastrocnemius muscle and soleus muscles to the plantar flexion motion.

The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are the two major plantar flexors of the body. These muscles are both used when we perform plantarflexion, regardless of our body position. However, the gastrocnemius is a multi-joint muscle that crosses the knee and ankle, while the soleus is a single-joint muscle that only crosses the ankle. So, by sitting down, the knee joint angle is changed, which can change the contribution of the gastrocnemius and soleus during the movement.

The hamstrings and quads should not be a main part of the movement, regardless of your body position, if the movement is performed correctly.

155.

Which of the following falls outside the scope of practice of a personal trainer?

  • Prescribing specific diets for clients

  • Prescribing exercise to a patient who was recently discharged from physical therapy for a shoulder surgery

  • Discussing diet and general components of nutrition with clients who want to lose weight

Correct answer: Prescribing specific diets for clients

Prescribing specific diets for clients is a practice reserved for nutritional specialists, such as dietitians and nutritionists. Trainers can, however, discuss general aspects of diet and nutrition, such as the calorie contents of foods, etc. 

Prescribing exercises for patients who were recently discharged from PT is within the scope of a personal trainer. 

156.

Which of the following should occur if the resistance band is sagging off the back during the starting position of the resistance band chest press?

  • Get a shorter band

  • Get a longer band

  • Wrap the band around the wrists

Correct answer: Get a shorter band

Get a shorter band is correct because the band should be taut, but not stretched. This ensures that the client will be able to fully extend the arms in front of them with an appropriate resistance. This exercise can be used when clients do not have access to a fitness facility while at home or traveling.

Get a longer band is incorrect because this would occur if the band was stretched tightly against the back in the starting position. Wrap the band around the wrists is incorrect because this may cause injury to the client.

157.

Which of the following describes the correct starting position of the body in relation to the barbell during the flat barbell bench press exercise? 

  • Eyes under the bar

  • Nipples under the bar

  • Top of the head under the bar

Correct answer: Eyes under the bar

Eyes under the bar is correct because this allows plenty of clearance from the rack during the exercise but is not far enough away that the client cannot rack the barbell themselves. Another important aspect of the starting position for this exercise is to assume a supine, five-point body contact position with a closed, pronated grip that is slightly wider than shoulder width. To begin, the client will signal the spotter for a liftoff and guide the bar to a position over the chest with the elbows fully extended.

Nipples under the bar is incorrect because it would be very likely that the barbell would make contact with the rack during exercise performance in this position. Top of the head under the bar is incorrect because in this position the client may have difficulty or possibly injure themselves moving the bar off or onto the rack.

158.

A hypertensive client is performing heavier back squats. How should they breathe as they hit the sticking point in the lift?

  • They should exhale.

  • They should use the Valsalva maneuver to help increase strength.

  • They should hold their breath throughout the lift.

Correct answer: They should exhale.

There are a couple of different breathing strategies that can be used during the sticking point of a lift. The sticking point describes the most difficult segment of the concentric portion of a lift and is usually where individuals "get stuck" (needing assistance or sometimes failing the lift).

More experienced individuals may use the Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding your breath for just 1 to 2 seconds through the sticking point. This strategy can help increase intra-abdominal pressure, providing increased stability for the lift. However, it is not advisable to hold your breath any longer than 1 to 2 seconds as it significantly increases the pressure in the chest.

Because of the pressure increase, individuals with hypertension or any other cardiovascular, metabolic, or respiratory condition should never use the Valsalva maneuver. Instead, they should use the second option, which involves exhaling (breathing out) throughout the sticking point.

Individuals should inhale during the easier portion of the lift (eccentric) and then exhale through the more difficult portion of the lift (concentric), including through the sticking point.

159.

When comparing the stability ball pushup with feet on a ball to the stability ball pushup with hands on a ball, which of the following is true?

  • The hands on a ball version requires more shoulder stability to perform

  • The toes on a ball version is harder than the hands on a ball version

  • The toes on a ball version is easier than the hands on a ball version

  • The toes on a ball version puts more emphasis on the pec major muscle while the hands on a ball version puts more emphasis on the triceps brachii

Correct answer: The hands on a ball version requires more shoulder stability to perform

Often the shoulders will move excessively in an attempt to stabilize the movement when the hands are on the ball. 

While the toes on a ball version is still difficult and effective for increasing stability and strength, this exercise does not require as much shoulder stability as the hands on a ball version does. Both exercises can be hard or easy depending on a number of factors. The pec major and triceps are primary agonists for both versions of the movement.

160.

Which of the following modifications would make the push-up more difficult?

  • Performing with feet on a bench and hands on the floor

  • Performing on the knees with both hands and knees on the floor

  • Performing with hands on a bench and feet on the floor

Correct answer: Performing with feet on a bench and hands on the floor

Trainers must consider the line of gravity when prescribing push-ups for their clients. Performing push-ups with hands on a bench and feet on the floor, as well as those performed with knees and hands on the floor, are easier due to a smaller moment arm and less weight being placed through the hands. 

Push-ups performed with feet on the bench and hands on the floor are more difficult than the traditional push-up due to the increased weight being placed through the hands.